In another thread a KJO stated: "King James Bible and that is 1611. The reason you will not see different copyright dates is because it has never been “revised”. All they have done is to correct some minor printing typos " So KJO does admit there were MINOR printing typos - IMHO - even a MINOR typos would prevent that version from being perfect. So is "almost perfect" good enough to be "perfect"? and may I ask my other question again: Why is the KJV more accurate than the previous English translations? and if a previous edition was not perfect - why would God keep the perfect Word hid for some 500 years Will be anxiously awaiting on your answers.