Some have tried to argue that Exodus 4:21 (practically) should be placed after the fifth plague, when Pharaoh ceases to harden his own heart and God hardens it for him. While I think there are numerous problems with that, in my studying for our evening Pie and Praise service, I came across the following verse that presents problems, it seems, for those of the opposite (of mine) persuasion. Consider Psalm 105:25, in the context of Israel in Egypt. The Psalmist informs us that "He (God) turned their hearts (the Egyptians) to hate his people, to deal craftily with his servants." It certainly appears, from a plain reading of the text, that God is the one who turned the Egyptians against the Israelites to accomplish deliverance from Egypt. But for many, this would seem to contradict their theology of "free will." Surely God would not lead the Egyptians to do something against their free will would he? Surely the phrase "God turned their hearts" cannot be construed as "they turned their hearts and then later God turned them too"? Surely God would not act in such a way would he? Or would he?? I believe he would. I believe it is demonstrated in many places in Scripture that the God of Scripture does indeed accomplish his will as he pleases by acting (not reacting) to accomplish his will. This text argues that God was behind the hatred of the Egyptians to accomplish the deliverance of his people so that at the end "Egypt was glad when they departed" (v. 38). To paraphrase Helen, the more I read of Scripture, the more solid the base for "calvinism" grows.