As I mentioned in my introduction I am KJP but trying to pick up the NASB. After reading this Sundays Sunday School Passage again I did the old flip it open and read what's there routine, I landed at Phillipians 1 and started to read. Vs 16&17 didn't sound right to my memory so I grabbed the KJV and read it.. Sure enough, its backwards. So I threw my NASB out the window.. Hold it just kidding.... So I grabbed my blackberry and went to biblegateway.com and looked at other versions. Some agreed with KJV but Most agreed with NASB.. So I went to an online Interlinear to see what it had to say.. Its a KJV/TR interlinear and they are in agreement. But I remember reading about Nestle something or ruther and saw an option to use their Greek Manuscript, its in agreement with the NASB,NIV,ESV etc etc.. Now I suppose this could be used as fuel for the 'Version Wars' but it doesn't change the meaning of the passage one wit in this instance. My question is: Is it common for major differences in the NA and TR, or is this type of thing the exception instead of the rule?