True confession, I'm not professionally trained in theology, I'm just an interested laymen. I say this as an appology ahead of time if my comments are a little rough around the edges. In Matthew ch 23, Jesus pronounces judgement (8 woes) on Jerusalem (that is the Jewish leaders) due to their unbelief in the Savior Jesus. Concluding his sermon, in Matthew 23 vs 37, Jesus specifically mentions Jerusalem and his love and heart felt desires for them. In vs. 38 he states that their house is being left you (them) desolate. and finally vs. 39 reads: "For I say to you, from now on you will not see Me until you say, 'BLESSED IS HE WHO COMES IN THE NAME OF THE LORD!'" A good question to ask preterists, who believe that Jesus returned in AD 70 when the Romans sacked the city is this: If Jesus returned in AD 70 and Jesus said beforehand that his return would take place when (or in concert with) Jerusalem accepting him as Lord and Savior (vs. 39 above), why then has Jerusalem been basically overrun with non-Christians and non-Jews since AD70? If Jerusalem is Babylon which has fallen (judged, according to preterists views) and yet the Lord is now ruling his kingdom from that city which he will do after he returns, why are even the Holy sites under Islamic control? Why is it not logical to conclude from Mat 23:39 that since Jesus returned in the first century that Jerusalem must have welcomed him, but for all their trouble they were judged anyway with no apparent later relief by God? Could it not be argued that in vs 38, the curse of Jerusalem actually began at the time Christ preached the sermon: "Behold, your house is being left to you desolate". If the judgement began 40 years later (AD70), then would it make better sense for Jesus to say your house will (at a later time of my coming) be left to you desolate? What exactly did the second coming accomplish if for all practical purposes no one for about 1800 years knew that the event had already taken place? According to those who believe covenant theology, a group that would include preterists, we are living in a time of the millennial reign of Christ, and in one way or another and in varing degrees the Church replaces Israel as the God's people, the church receiving the blessings of God while the Jews receive the curses. If AD 70 marked the return if Jesus in which he would have been welcomed by the city (vs 39) why then does the almost 2000 year curse continue? If not then for all of the Jews, then should not at least Jerusalem be exempt from this extended time of judgement?