Question for Jehovah' Witness

Discussion in 'Free-For-All Archives' started by Logan, Apr 26, 2003.

  1. Logan

    Logan
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    I recently have had JW's come to my door and have had discussions with them on the divinity of Christ. I had questions they could not answer and they told me they would return. Well, they did not return so if there are any JW's here, maybe you will accomodate me please.

    The JW's bible, the NWT, translates the Greek word ego eimi as "I am" every time it appears (John 6:34, 6:41, 8:24, 13:19 etc...)except in John 8:58 where it is translated as "I have been." What is the reason for the inconsistency in this translation other than the obvious slant that denies Jesus is calling Himself God here? (See Exodus 3:14).
     
  2. Larry in Tennessee

    Larry in Tennessee
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    The only reason they mistranslate John 8:58 is to deny that Jesus is really God in the flesh. Unfortunately, they also mistranslate Exodus 3:14, "This is what you are to say to the sons of Israel, I SHALL PROVE TO BE has sent me to you." (Ex.3:14 NWT). By comparing this with their rendering of John 8:58 as 'I have been', it makes it seem as though there is no correlation between the two. This is just another example of the watchtower perverting the Bible to fit their doctrines.

    Love in Christ,
    Larry
     
  3. Carson Weber

    Carson Weber
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  4. Ben W

    Ben W
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    There is a parallel bible for sale that offers a modern translation of the Bible, the texts that is was translated from then the translation of the JW Bible. It shows the JW bible to be an extremley poor translation.

    What many people do not know is that you can read to the JW's from the KJV. This was the version used by their 144 000 people. Resultingly they cannot argue against it or it suggests the original group were wrong. :D
     

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