I was reading Luke 1 in NIV 2011 this morning and when I came to verse 37 it said this: "For no word from God will ever fail.” I didn't remember that verse saying that so I checked with other versions online and they all say: "For with God nothing is impossible." I'm wondering why the NIV translated that verse the way it did. Is it a mistranslation or translation choice? Just seems odd that the NIV is the only one that translates it this way. I really want to like the NIV but when I come across quirks like this it really makes me doubt the translation.