I have questions any KJVo's. I have had much difficulty in finding KJVO's who can or will honestly answer these questions. 1. If God preserved His Word as inerrant, then why did the KJV have to be edited so many times from 1611 through 1769? Does this depend on your definition of "inerrant"? 2. If the Tyndale and Geneva Bibles were the inerrant and inspired Word of God, then why do we need the KJV? 3. If previous Bibles contained errors, then does that not mean that God did not preserve His Word inerrant through the centuries? 4. KJVonlyists always quote Psalm 12:6, claiming that God's written Word had to be purified seven times. Does this doctrine not presume that the written Word was not whole & inerrant for centuries until it was purged of the dross(error) seven times? KJVo's tout the kingly authorization of the KJV as proof of it's legitimacy, The KJV1611 was authorized by a pagan king, contained the Apocrypha & was used by Catholics. The Tyndale & Geneva Bibles were translated & used by Christians. The KJB was edited numerous times, but the Tyndale & Geneva did not have to be edited so many times. KJVO's praise the fact that the KJB was authorized by a king, but kings were not by God's perfect plan. The Israelites demanded a king out of the wickedness of their hearts. Therefore, does a king "authorization" add to or take from a Bible's credibility?