In a recently closed thread, JonC posted the following: "I didn't notice ("drag" was the literal definition..."draw" vs. "drag" by an inward power...I was concentrating on the "inward power" being of God and not man...not whether it was "draw" or "drag"...but I appreciate the correction). The verse indicates, then, that we were "drawn by an inward power"...but what is this power? Is it our own "human response"? Not according to Scripture - it is God's "drawing". God "draws us with an inward power". Does this mean that God attracts us? You could use that, but only if you are speaking of "attract" in such a way as to include an inherent "inward power". Here you: 1. take "draw" remove it from a connection to it's literal definition ("drag"), 2. replace it with "draw" as a metaphoric definition ("draw with an inward power") 3. and then consult an English dictionary to make "draw" read "attract" ("attract with an inward power"). 4. get rid of God's hand in the process ("with an inward power" being the work of the Father) 5. reduce the original "draw with an inward power" down to "attract" 6. and add "human response" to conclude that God attracts all men, who come as a human response. And you denounce other interpretations as taking liberties with the text. Did it ever occur to you that perhaps God drawing people means exactly that? Maybe we do not have to change it to a metaphor, and then exchange part of the metaphor for another word, and then add "human response". Maybe if we pause a moment, simply looking at the "inward power" being (according to Scripture) of the Father and not a "human response" we can simply move on and know that God drew us to Himself" One of the lexiconal meanings attributed to the Greek word translated draw in John 12:32 is draw by inward power. But is this the only meaning given? Of course not. Here is the actual quote, " metaph., to draw by inward power, lead, impel So a Tractor Beam is no where in view. God draws us with lovingkindness. Our human response to Jesus suffering and dying on the cross (high and lifted up) is to be attracted to the One who died for us. All these charges that I am not presenting an unbiased view are simply an effort to undercut the mainstream view. 1) Did I replace the literal meaning for the metaphoric meaning, or did JonC replace the metaphoric meaning with the literal meaning? 2) Did I edit the lexiconal meaning to exclude "lead" and "impel?" 3) Is the only place the Greek word (G1670-helko) is said to mean "attract" in the KJV Dictionary? Here is Thayer's "I by my moral, my spiritual, influence will win over to myself the hearts of all, John 12:32." God draws by lovingkindness, Jeremiah 31:3. Clearly our human response to God's revelation is in view, not a supernatural tractor beam. 4) Did I "get rid" of the Father's influence? No, it is the Father who does the "drawing" but by an attractive appeal rather than a tractor beam. 5) As used in John 6:44 and John 12:32, draw means attract. To claim it means a tractor beam ignores the lexicons, and redefines attract to mean tractor beam. 6) Did I "add" human response, or is that how God leads us to Christ? Read Jeremiah 31:3 again, human response to God"s lovingkindness is in view. I did not add human response, someone seems to want to delete it. Bottom line no valid argument has been made to support that draw does not mean attract at John 6:44 and 12:32.