Gail Riplinger wrote: "The previous Bishops' Bible (c1568-1611) was no less perfect, pure, and true than the KJV" (IN AWE OF THY WORD, p. 17). She wrote: "In the main, the Bishops' Bible is the same as all previous English Bibles" (p. 567). She proposed that "the Bishops' Bible is the textual twin of the KJV" (p. 164). She stated: "The KJV translators generally followed the grammatical elements and word order (syntax) of the Bishops' Bible. This was their foundation and they seldom varied from it" (p. 132). Do KJV-only posters here agree with Riplinger's claim that the Bishops' Bible was as perfect, pure, and true as the KJV?