Romans 5

Craigbythesea · Oct 9, 2004

In the KJV we read in Rom. 5:

2. By whom also we have access by faith into this grace wherein we stand, and rejoice in hope of the glory of God.
3. And not only so, but we glory in tribulations also: knowing that tribulation worketh patience;

In the Greek text we have the very same word (kauchometha) in both verses, but in verse 2 the KJV has “rejoice” and in verse 3 the KJV has “glory.” What does the word “glory” mean and how does it differ from the word “rejoice?”

Ransom · Oct 9, 2004

It doesn't. "Glory in" and "rejoice in" are synonymous. The KJV translators sometimes used English synonyms to translate the same Greek terms, just to add variety to their style.

Another things we think good to admonish thee of (gentle Reader) that we have not tied ourselves to an uniformity of phrasing, or to an identity of words, as some peradventure would wish that we had done, because they observe, that some learned men somewhere, have been as exact as they could that way. Truly, that we might not vary from the sense of that which we had translated before, if the word signified that same in both places (for there be some words that be not the same sense everywhere) we were especially careful, and made a conscience, according to our duty. But, that we should express the same notion in the same particular word; as for example, if we translate the Hebrew or Greek word once by PURPOSE, never to call it INTENT; if one where JOURNEYING, never TRAVELING; if one where THINK, never SUPPOSE; if one where PAIN, never ACHE; if one where JOY, never GLADNESS, etc. Thus to mince the matter, we thought to savour more of curiosity than wisdom, and that rather it would breed scorn in the Atheist, than bring profit to the godly Reader. For is the kingdom of God to become words or syllables? why should we be in bondage to them if we may be free, use one precisely when we may use another no less fit, as commodiously?
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On the other hand, variety for variety's sake isn't always necessarily a good thing. Sometimes the translators tended to obscure the author's parallelism.

Phillip · Oct 9, 2004

Ransom, maybe during the 17th century, but I don't think "Glory in" and "rejoice in" are quite as synonomous as you want them to be. "Rejoice" tends to imply an action, whereas "Glory" is more descriptive.

You may be right as to why the translators used the different words, but I don't think it was such a good idea, especially in this case. Does the Greek word imply an action verb or a description?

Ransom · Oct 9, 2004

Phillip said:

Ransom, maybe during the 17th century, but I don't think "Glory in" and "rejoice in" are quite as synonomous as you want them to be.

When you are reading a 17th-century translation, you have to read it through 17th-century eyes. Otherwise, the consequence will be anachronism and confusion.

Phillip · Oct 9, 2004

I now understand what you said and agree. Thank you!

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