In another thread, I mentioned that I avoided the "Living Bible" cuz it's too muchova paraphrase for my liking, but mainly cuz it contains one of the most-offensive phrases in American English in 1 Samuel 20:30. Now we all know that the KJV contains a word in 2 Kings 18:27 and in Isaiah 36:12, with its present-tense verb found in several other places, that's now considered a "cussword" in most American circles now, but was not thus considered in 17th C. England. I am not faulting the KJV for using this word. My Q is this: Should a modern English BV use this word, or similar words considered scatology now?? "Urine" and "urinate" are now commonly-accepted words for this substance & the process of eliminating it from one's body, but some KJV purists say this word shouldn'ta been changed for modern versions. I strongly disagree with those 'purists'. To me, it's outright 'cussing' to place a word in a BV that's considered now to be a 'dirty word' regardless of its not having been a dirty word in the past. What are YOUR thoughts, other readers?