Sola Scriptura and KJVOist

Sorry natters, I wasn’t born till 1957 so I haven’t a clue. I’m sure someone who isn’t so “clueless” can fill you in.
DB

 

It's called a lie. Often in their preaching they pick and choose verses to prooftext with.

 

Dogsbody said "Sorry natters, I wasn’t born till 1957 so I haven’t a clue. [Smile] I’m sure someone who isn’t so “clueless” can fill you in."

Ah, but the fact that you are young doesn't matter to my second question: Did scripture change meaning? Can scripture mean one thing on one day, and somethiing else the next day?

 

Sorry, not sure what your after. Missed it, I guess. God's word change? Never! My interpretation? Yes, I have been wrong and sometimes very wrong. Oh no, I just made another case for my fallibility! Back to study.
DB

 

Dogsbody, if scripture does not change (and I agree), then no scriptures (like "seek ye out the book", etc.) can refer to the KJV, for they could not refer to the KJV before the KJV existed. What they referred to in 1610, 1500, 1000 and 500 is what they still mean today.

 

I did not say this verse refers to the KJV. I wanted input on preservation. I stated "seek ye out the book..." was an interesting command, not that I could say emphatically I knew the exact intrepretation. Maybe I've highjacked this thread with my questions, as it is for debate, and do apologize. I suppose I should bow out.
Thank you all for your answers. You've been most helpful.
DB

 

Dogsbody: Isaiah 36:16-17 “Seek ye out the book of the LORD, and read...

Correction: Isa 34:16-17.

Dogsbody: "I wanted input on preservation. I stated "seek ye out the book..." was an interesting command, not that I could say emphatically I knew the exact intrepretation."

Simple lesson in applied hermeneutics: the context is eschatological ("the Day of the LORD's vengeance") with many in-context parallels to the book of the Revelation (cf. Isa 34:2, 4, 8, 10, etc.).

The prophecy of vv.16-17 relates to this eschatological context -- "no one of these" PROPHECIES regarding the Day of the LORD "shall fail". "They shall possess it forever, from generation to generation shall they dwell therein" relates to the LAND, and not to the "book".

A very basic and simple in-context interpretation, without any eisegesis or referent-switching.

 

Dogsbody:A really interesting point, robycop3, but what or who determines what is a ?valid translation??

This is an oft-asked question, with an oft-repeated answer..."A valid translation is a translation which follows its sources closely as possible".

There are questions about those sources, of course, and since there are many Greek, hebrew, and Aramaic words/phrases which have several possible renderings in English, we're gonna have various differing translations based upon translators' choices, and there are differences between old English Bibles and modern ones, usually based upon the changes in the English language, and among modern English BVs due to the differences in English as used in various nations. For example, there's a certain word beginning with the letter "B" which is in everyday USA usage, but which most of the time is highly offensive to the British. This word is found in the KJV beginning with Exodus 4:25, but is NOT found in the NIV-UK. But then both the KJV and NIV-UK renderings are correct according to the possible renderings of the Hebrew.


What I was really after was if any saw the verses as God?s promise to divinely preserve his word? The command to "seek out the book of the LORD" is really intresting! I think it?s a absolutely beautiful passage of scripture. Any Amens?

I think it would be a stretch to apply this passage to preservation unto THIS day. God had commanded the levites to write and keep His laws, so far as Israel was concerned, this passage could apply to THEM.