I ask, then, has God rejected his people? By no means! I myself am an Israelite, a descendant of Abraham, a member of the tribe of Benjamin. God has not rejected his people whom he foreknew. (Romans 11:1-2). Those God foreknew at Romans 8:29 are the Jews who God had known as his people before the present time of Paul's writing. Romans 8:29 has absolutely NOTHING to do with God knowing people in/for the future. The word "foreknew" here and at Romans 11:2 is a reference to God knowing people in the PAST. As it is, it is here irrelevant whether or not "God knows the future." The question at hand is what is this verse talking about and what does it intend to say. The intention of the word foreknew (to know beforehand) is to indicate God had known the Jews beforehand, that is before the present time (when the letter of Roamns was written). Romans 8:29 means: Jews in the past<-----God knew them before in the past NOT God knew people before they existed or were saved-------->People in the future The same word is also used this way here: "So then, all Jews know my manner of life from my youth up, which from the beginning was spent among my own nation and at Jerusalem; since they foreknew me." (Acts 26:4-5) "So then, all Jews know my manner of life from my youth up, which from the beginning was spent among my own nation and at Jerusalem; since they knew me beforehand]/b]." (Acts 26:4-5). Obviously, this word "foreknew" here is not a reference to the Jews foreknowing the future is it? It is a reference to the Jews having known Paul in the past. It is used in the same way at Romans 8:29 and 11:2. The passage obviously means: "For those Jews whom God had known before the present time...."