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Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by Craigbythesea, Jul 19, 2004.
Is the King James Version theologically biased?
If it is, it must be biased towards early 17th century Anglicanism.
What do you mean theologically biased?
One can get all the orthodox theologies
and 95% of the unorthodox theologies right
out of the King James Versions.
Two or three things which have caught my atention in the past.
Here is one.
the word "bishop", Anglo-Catholics (high church) still ordain sacerdotal or ministerial priests to officiate the "celebration of the Eucharist", distinctly apart from the priesthood of the believer. "Bishop" semantically derives from "episcopos" but the use of this word is definitely supportive of a Catholic minesterial priesthood.
Traditionally and in the distinctives, Baptists reject this English word and replace it with one of the two allowed offices of the Church, pastor and deacon.
Yes, of course. All translations bear the theological bias of the translators and the KJV is no different. The question to ask is "are their biases better biases than other biases, or are their biases better biases than my biases?"
James gave instructions to the translation committees (probably initiated by Archbishop Richard Bancroft) which set down certain rules regarding the work to be done.
It is fairly easy to discern the theological bias in the above rules.
I read somewhere that Bancroft drew up the 14 points & presented them to the king for his sanction, which he gave.