Whose fault is it? Romans 9:18 (NASB95) "So then He has mercy on whom He desires, and He hardens whom He desires." I have heard many who after reading this and reading what Paul has to say about Pharoah say this: "The only reason God hardend Pharoah's heart was because Pharoah hardened his own heart first." And that is what I want to discuss. IF God hardned Pharoah's heart only because Pharoah did it first then there is no question as to whose fault it is that Pharoah's heart was hardned - it was Pharoah's fault - Pharoah was the one who did it! But I ask then - Why does Paul's agument not take that turn but rather the opposite! Paul poses the question that we would ask if someone said this statement, "God hardened Pharoah's heart because God wanted to use Pharoah to display His awesome power." Then we say to that, "That's not fair! Why does God then still find fault with Pharoah? Because Pharoah didn't really DO anything! God did it!" Which is exactly the question Paul poses: Romans 9:19 (NASB95) "You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who resists His will?”" If God hardends people ONLY and IF they first harden their own hearts then WHY does Paul sense that his readers will ask this question? I would say that the reason Paul poses the question is becuase in Paul's Theology the question exists - as to who is to blame for Pharoah's sin because God was the one who hardended Pharoah's heart. Do you see the need for the question? I am not going to talk about what I think as to what this means - only to say the question exists in Paul's Theology - shouldn't it exist in ours?