Recently, a poster asserted God's love for mankind was not expressed in Titus 3:4. Here is how the NASB renders the verse: But if you look at the NLT, or ESV, or NIV, is is what you get; (1)But— When God our Savior revealed his kindness and love....(NLT) (2)But when the goodness and loving kindness of God our Savior appeared.... (ESV) (3)But when the kindness and love of God our Savior appeared....(NIV) So at least three modern translations do not think "philanthrōpia" (Strongs' G5363) should be translated "love of men." If we check other translations, we find almost all render the word love of men. Commentaries indicate this word expresses God's "all embracing love" for mankind. Is anyone aware of the scholarly basis for omitting the full message conveyed by the word, and just translating the first part of the compound word?