Would any of you KJV onlyists care to explain why there is an obvious translation error in Matthew 23:24? And please don't say it's a misprint since misprints get corrected in later printings. Translation errors perpetuate into later printings. Since there is an error in translation, and God does not make errors, doesn't this mean that the KJV is NOT inspired? Cix Straining AT gnats since 2003.