Perhaps, it may surprise some individuals to become aquainted with the fact that some ancient language words are not translated into English Bible texts. For example, the Hebrew word 'Amown (Strong's #528) occurs in the Jewish scriptures twice (in Jeremiah 46:25 and Nahum 3:8), but is left completely untranslated in the KJV. There are many instances of unrendered Hebrew words in the KJV Old Testament. Here also is one example from the New Testament: the Greek word Kaisar (Strong's #2541, translated 30 times in the KJV as "Caesar") is present in the TR Greek but was restricted from coming into the AV text (in 2 Timothy 4:22). These were considered God's words when read and then copied into those previous holy scriptures (manuscripts which we now possess). How does the fact that some words go untranslated affect the 'literalness' of a version? How does this relate to the taking away from, or changing of, God's words?