I have two general questions and discussions. Which text is more accurate, septuagint or the masoretic text? And what does this imply for the virgin birth doctrine if anything? Concerning the verses in Isaiah that predict the virgin birth, I have read on various websites and a few books that the Masoretic text uses the Hebrew word for young girl (almah, whereas virgin is bethulah), whereas the Greek Septuagint has translated from a Hebrew OT text and uses the greek word virgin (parthenos). I've also read that the Septuagint is generally dated around 300 B.C.E, and the Masoretic text around 1000 A.C.E. I don't know if these dates are generally accepted or not. I've read that the Septuagint version of the Hebrew Old Testament was translated by Jewish scholars into Greek, and that the Masoretic text was compiled also by Jewish scholars. Why would one set of Jewish scholars seem to believe that the Isaiah verses are specifically talking about "virgin", whereas another set, (possibly 1300 years later?) belive that the proper meaning is "young girl"? Did Jesus and the apostles refer to the OT Septuagint? I've read that this was the common version of the OT around that time. I've also read that Jesus used a Hebrew version of the OT? Were there different Hebrew versions of the OT around at the time of Jesus that are no longer available? Were there some Hebrew OT versions at the time of Jesus that contained the reading "virgin", and others that contained the "young girl" reading? Does the New Testament refer to the Septuagint when it refers to the OT scripture fulfillment of prophecy when speaking of the virgin birth? Do the Dead Sea Scrolls support the Greek Septuagint or the Masoretic text when it comes to Isaiah virgin birth prophecies?