.... "unequally yoked" to the King of Persia when she became his wife? (See Esther 2:17.) If one should state that when the Holy Spirit directed the Apostle Paul to command God's people not to marry an unbeliever (as in II Corinthians 6:14ff), I would remind that person that God commanded His people to not marry an unbeliever in Deuteronomy 7:3ff. Now, I firmly believe that no part of God's Word will never contradict itself. OTOH, I am having some difficulty trying to reconcile why God allowed Esther to "violate(?)" this principle when she married the King of Persia. [As a matter of fact, it would seem that God actually used Esther to preserve the Jewish people by marrying the King of Persia.] Please help me to understand why God seemed to "approve" of Esther's marriage to the King of Persia. IOW, why would God permit Esther to marry the King of Persia when He told Moses to not have His people marry someone who was not a Jew. Thanks in advance for any assistance that you may be able to give me in this matter.