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Discussion in 'Bible Versions/Translations' started by DaChaser1, Jan 18, 2012.
was it based upon SAME Greek source as the old KJV was?
Well the first place I'd check would be the INTRODUCTION to the NKJV and see what they say.
I have, and it seemed that they were using the TR as the Greek text basis , but also were using items such as CT/MT in some areas....
oh, and yes as far as I know. There are a few variants in the TR's.
No, didn't use the CT
I've had kjvo's tell me 1200 places before, but usually run away when I ask them for an example. askjo one time here said 800 but failed in every example he gave.
so the translators consulted the other Greek texts that were NOT available to the KJV, but used ONLY the TR, and put other "possible" renderings based on CT/MT in notes?
yes, as deacon quoted. Did you look at a nkjv? It says what they did right there.
Their text was based from the TR although the cited various readings from the CT and MT when there is divergence and possible significance.
Would that reason be why many KJVO look at the NKJV as NOT being a 'real" KJV bible?
No. They don't consider the NKJV to be a real bible because it is not the KJV.
But wouldn't it be the same in the sense translators used exact same Greek text for their source?
No, the KJV and the NKJV are not same because they differently translated for example of 2 Cor. 10:5. Go and check this passage.
The KJV agrees with the TR saying logismoV meaning "imaginations." The NKJV has "arguments" because the NKJV translators corrupted this verse.
How did they corrupt this ? was it a rendering based upon using varients from either CT/MT readings?
No corruption. The NKJV agrees with the TR here as well. No major textual variant is in this passage. Just a different and accurate translation of the same Greek word.
to the KJV only person, anything that is different from the KJV is a "corruption"
circular reasoning works because circular reasoning works because....
That would make the Greek text corrupted. I guess the KJVO folks forgot about what Christians did long before English was a language.
Not to them. Their mantra is "Things that are different are not the same" and "If it ain't KJV it ain't Bible!"
Heres a series of indepth articles comparing the differences between the KJV and the NKJV, if anyone is interested. They are long reads as quite a number of verses are compared, often with references to which of the two lines of Bible versions (translations) support the differences.
IMHO, this gives better insight, regardless of which side you stand on the issue, than comparing a single verse, chosen at random.
NKJV Bible Babel in Proverbs - The Book of Proverbs - KJB compared to the NKJV http://brandplucked.webs.com/nkjvbabelinproverbs.htm
Another one : The Authorized King James Bible compared to the New KJV in 1 and 2 Chronicles. http://brandplucked.webs.com/nkjvchron.htm
And: NKJV same as KJB? http://brandplucked.webs.com/nkjvsameaskjb.htm
The first two links have nothing to do with the Greek texts.
The question is not 'Are the KJV and the NKJV identical.' They are not. The question is do they use the same Greek texts. They do.