Note: This is a multiple subject post. All questions and comments below are meant to be discussed in this thread. This is because I didn’t want to clutter the forum with everything I wanted to talk about: WOuld the OT be used to prove there is not man that God doesn't want to come to him because it talkes about every sinful person possible? Anyway, why didn't Christ offer redemption to the Pharaciees? Is He always harsher on the more Godly people when they havent accepted him?