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Why does AV side with TLB, MSG, n CEV in Obad 12-14?

Discussion in '2003 Archive' started by Forever settled in heaven, Oct 29, 2003.

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  1. Forever settled in heaven

    Forever settled in heaven New Member

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    maybe some KJBOs can explain this:

    why does the AV side w TOday's Living Bible, The MESSAGE, n Contemp English Version on Obadiah 12-14, AGAINST NIV, NASB, n Young's Literal Translation?

    those on TLB-CEV-MSG-AV side interpret the words in the past tense--"thou shdst not have done thus n so."

    those on the NIV-NASB-YLT side takes them in the future--"u must not do thus n so."

    how does the English correct the Hebrew in these verses?

    how important is it to be formally equivalent?
     
    #1 Forever settled in heaven, Oct 29, 2003
  2. Michael Hobbs

    Michael Hobbs New Member

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    Not sure if this is the reason or not but usually when you speak of an event that has already occurred, the verbs reflect a past tense. Notice verse 8 says, "In that day" both in NIV and KJV. So, a future event is being described. God is bringing judgment on Edom for their actions against Israel. God is saying it is because of what they did not what they will do.

    IMO, the NIV verb tense is clearly wrong for verses 12-14.
     
    #2 Michael Hobbs, Oct 31, 2003
  3. Forever settled in heaven

    Forever settled in heaven New Member

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    that wld be correct. if the past is meant, the tense wld be the past, indeed.

    correct again. God says he wld destroy the wise men of Edom--in the future.

    God is saying it is because of what they did not what they will do.

    the problem, as i stated originally, wasn't w verse 8. it is in verses 12-14, where the Hebrew refers to the Future, not the Past.

     
    #3 Forever settled in heaven, Oct 31, 2003
  4. Sola_Scriptura

    Sola_Scriptura New Member

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    The AV translators time-travelled to the future and read TOday's Living Bible, The MESSAGE, n Contemp English Version, and then got back in their T.A.R.D.I.S. with the Doctor and went back to the 17th century. However on the way back they stopped off for some tea with a Dalek.
     
    #4 Sola_Scriptura, Nov 3, 2003
  5. Anti-Alexandrian

    Anti-Alexandrian Member

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    Even Jerome had to resort back to the old Latin to complete his "bible". Just as many "godly men" had to resort back to the KJB to make their's look like a "bible"(whichever of the 200+ conflicting authorities);any counterfeit must mimic the STANDARD..

    [ November 03, 2003, 09:51 AM: Message edited by: Anti-Alexandrian ]
     
    #5 Anti-Alexandrian, Nov 3, 2003
  6. Archangel7

    Archangel7 New Member

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    The KJV translators had to resort back to the Tyndale Bible. Does this mean that the KJV is the "counterfeit" and the Tyndale Bible is the "standard?" [​IMG]
     
    #6 Archangel7, Nov 4, 2003
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