maybe some KJBOs can explain this: why does the AV side w TOday's Living Bible, The MESSAGE, n Contemp English Version on Obadiah 12-14, AGAINST NIV, NASB, n Young's Literal Translation? those on TLB-CEV-MSG-AV side interpret the words in the past tense--"thou shdst not have done thus n so." those on the NIV-NASB-YLT side takes them in the future--"u must not do thus n so." how does the English correct the Hebrew in these verses? how important is it to be formally equivalent?