Everyone here knows the AV 1611 contains a preface, "From The Translators To The Reader". Now, many a supporter of the KJVO myth calls him/herself "AV1611" or something similar, but, if questioned about their quoting Scripture from a later KJV edition, chimes" There's no textual changes". Then, if they're saying the later KJVs are essentially the same as the AV 1611 except for the Apocrypha, how do they justify the removal of the preface? And how do the PUBLISHERS justify its removal? they can't say it's to keep the number of pages down because almost every KJV edition today includes a concordance, or maps, or commentary, or dictionary, or a combination of any or all of the above, each of which takes several more pages to print than does the preface. The preface is not under any more copyright than the text is. I know of no good reason to have omitted it. Is it because the publishers don't believe the newer editions are actually that close to the 1611? I don't believe the KJVO myth would've gotten to first base if the later KJVs had included that preface. The Psalm 12:7 thingy would never have been conceived, nor would the many claims & counterclaims from both sides of mistranslations ever seen light. In other words, IMO, there wouldn't have been any KJVO myth, period. Can anyone tell us any FACTS about why the preface is now omitted from most currently-printed KJV editions?