Why?

Pastor Bob, Debate is good! Speaking of JRR, I go to the same church as his granddaughter.

Keep up the good work, Brother.

AVL1984

 

Michelle:I have a different take on this, as I believe God provided for all of us his inspired words in our language.

Without pasting your entire post, I believe your words are correct...LONG AS YOU DON'T TRY TO LIMIT GOD TO JUST ONE ENGLISH VERSION! There's absolutely no Scriptural basis for such a doctrine. However, there's PLENTY of doctrine for God's providing His word in the language of the target aydience or readership, and He did NOT retire in 1611...He STILL provedes his word in the language of His intended readership. Now, WHO is His intended audience/readership?


**WHOSOEVER**

The fact that a cross-translation of any non-English Bible into English will produce an entirely NEW English version should tell the Onlyists something...along with the fact that no two English versions are alike.

As for the textual issues...Several large nations, including JAPAN(pop.125 Meg), EGYPT(pop.70.7 meg) have the Scriptures almost exclusively from the dreaded Alex mss...and that's all they've had for HUNDREDS OF YEARS! Now, did GOD turn His back on over 200 million people, especially Egypt, whom He calls HIS people?(Isaiah 19:25) And, there are many millions more people in various nations who have the Scriptures only from translations of the Alex and/or Western mss.

You see, there's simply NO JUSTIFICATION for believing the KJVO myth.

 

And there is NO justification to be found concerning Scripture and Egypt...Go on,prove me wrong!!

 

Anti_Alexandrian:And there is NO justification to be found concerning Scripture and Egypt...Go on,prove me wrong!!

Apples and oranges.


You're speaking of a point of origin for Scripture...the places where God first presented any part of it to men. He presented some of it in the Sinai Desert area. He presented lots of it at Jerusalem. He presented some at Tekoa.

We could make a long list of places where God first presented a part of Scripture. But why do I say apples and oranges? Because we have NO IDEA of which and how many places men made copies of the Scriptures. Shoot, in Acts 2 alone, God caused some of'em to be heard in umpteen languages at once. AND EGYPT WAS INCLUDED! Acts 2, KJV:
6 Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language.
7 And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans?
8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?
9 Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia,
10 Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes,
11 Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God.

And we have NO IDEA of how many in that audience copied what they heard, and maybe afterwards sought to find & copy ALL the Scriptures then in mens' hands. So the "alexandrian" thing is completely moot.

However, the lack of Scriptural support for the KJVO myth is NOT moot. Unlike the "Alex" thing, this is a doctrine about SCRIPTURE ITSELF, regardless of point of origin. And there's simply NOTHING to lend the slightest amount of truth to the false doctrine that the KJV is the ONLY valid English BV there is.

Nice try, A_A, but your argument fails for lack of pertinence.

 

Exactly, Robycop3.

AVL1984

 

AA said "And there is NO justification to be found concerning Scripture and Egypt...Go on,prove me wrong!!"

There's much more scriptural evidence of Egypt being a place of preservation than of England.

 

And we can begin with God's preserving Jacob & family in Egypt during a famine and end with His preserving JESUS and His earthly parents in Egypt from Herod.

Does GOD hate Egypt? Anyone who thinks so, please read Isaiah 19 all the way through, carefully, with emphasis on V.25.