How Did the Fall of Adam Affect the Lord Jesus?

'That which is born of the flesh is flesh.' There are no exceptions to this rule. If Zechariah, Elizabeth and Noah found grace in God's eyes (as they did), it is because they were not in the flesh but in the Spirit. They were justified by grace through faith.

Once again, I'm sorry not to be able to respond to your other posts. I am going to make one post to @JonC and then I'm finished here until I get my sermons done. I'm aware that I didn't respond to you as I promised on another topic, and I apologize for that also.

 

Yes. The Biblical evidence for this is overwhelming and I haven't even got to Genesis 3 yet. That he fell into sin is self-evident, but the temptation did not arise within him or Eve, but came from without, but once he succumbed to it his whole nature changed..

That would be true, but both Cain and Abel were fallen creatures, hence the need for sacrifice.

Sin is indeed a matter of the will, but the will of man is fallen and in bondage to the flesh (e.g. Jeremiah 13:23).
All the questions I have asked you have been Bible-based. Let me reprise some of them for you:

God pronounced creation 'good' before the creation of Adam. After the creation of Adam, He pronounced it 'very good.' So the arrival of Adam actually improved creation. Now if Adam was created as just a regular guy and if 'those who are in the flesh [i.e sinful nature] cannot please God,' then how could creation with him in it be 'very good' and since Adam came straight from the hands of God, how is God not the author of evil?

'The heart is deceitful above all things, and desperately wicked.' Men sin of their own volition, but because they have wicked, unbelieving hearts. Now: did Adam have such a heart when he was first created? 'The carnal mind is enmity against God.' Did Adam have such a mind when he was first created?

I also wrote:

But we have inherited Adam's fallen nature and in our natural state are 'non posse non peccare'-- not able not to sin. That is why we are 'by nature, children of wrath' (Ephesians 2:3). Adam was not a child of wrath by nature, nor could he have been in a 'very good' creation.

There is nothing 'philosophical' about these; they are all based upon the Bible. But you are unwilling or unable to answer them, so it appears that my work here is done.

 

One more time. Adam was good.
Adam became corrupted.
Adam was no longer good. His nature changed.

That is the carnal nature.

 

Let's be perfectly clear. Flesh and bone is not evil. That which animates flesh and bone is. The breath of life that was breathed into Adam became corrupted. His mind. His heart.

Not his flesh and bone, though it has a death sentence upon it.

When we say that which is born of flesh is flesh, it isn't flesh and bone that is in mind, but the soul.

 

Come, come, JonC, you know perfectly well how sarx is used in the NT. Don't be so silly.

 

Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; Heb 2:14

Is that, the death, that the sin of Adam brought to all men? Why did God put the man in the garden he had planted where the devil happened to be.

Was the purpose of putting him there to test the man or for some purpose relative to the mission of the Son of God to be manifested as a man, flesh and blood?

You said the sinful devil already existed before the man was created in the image of God, therefore, did sin have to take place in order that; through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil, to take place?

 

And we have known that to those loving God all things ( And when the woman saw that the tree was good for food, and that it was pleasant to the eyes, and a tree to be desired to make one wise, she took of the fruit thereof, and did eat, and gave also unto her husband with her; and he did eat.)do work together for good, to those who are called (Adam and Eve) according to purpose; because whom He did foreknow, He also did fore-appoint, conformed to the image of His Son, that he might be first-born among many brethren; (Inclusive of Adam and Eve?) Rom 8:28,29 with Gen 3:6 inserted

What think ye of this thought?

Please do your sermons first.

 

JonC,

we can say much more than that....

You say this several times....yet it is a foolish statement and not looking for an answer,,,,Adam existed before the fall...He was not created as fallen.
He continued to exist after the fall...but had failed the test.

He was in original righteousness...yet untested. The test came he failed and sin and death entered...and us in him.

The misunderstanding, or lack of understanding of judaism has nothing to do with the scriptural teaching.

 

Yes...by using the scriptural teaching and language ...the truth is obvious.