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I added the "unto salvation" for those who think the distinction is important.
Do you believe that men are predestined? Do you believe that those who are saved are predestined to be saved and those who are lost are predestined to be lost?
Why or why not?
Who is "us" here? Is it the elect (as a whole) or individuals? In other words, is the verse speaking of the elect as a whole (i.e., this is"God's people" or is it speaking of individuals who enter into that population)?It is important to turn to Scripture when answering these questions.
Ephesians 1:3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ, 4 just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we would be holy and blameless before Him. (Emphasis mine)
Who is "us" here? Is it the elect (as a whole) or individuals? In other words, is the verse speaking of the elect as a whole (i.e., this is"God's people" or is it speaking of individuals who enter into that population)?
For my part, I do believe everything is predestined but for more philosophical reasons.
Thank you for your explanation. I agree it means "all believers" in a larger sense.ημας (ἐγώ) "us" is a plural personal pronoun, in the first person in the accusative case. Paul does not introduce any other individual(s) in preceding verses except himself and the Ephesian believers. ἐγώ (eigo) is used by Paul to refer to both the believers in Ephesus as well as himself. In a larger sense, to "us" his extended audience, it means all believers. None of the epistles were written specifically to us today. They are all written to us today indirectly.
I agree in a sense. We do have to be careful how we stand on our beliefs, but we also need to be able to accept what part is philosophical or human understanding verses stated in Scripture. If philosophy (to include reasoning and interpretation) were involved then I would have more confidence in your position as we could discuss the reasons for your conclusions. In other words, you being convinced that Scripture teaches predestination to salvation is not exactly evidence no philosophy or reasoning is involved.If it were for philosophical reasons I would not have confidence in my belief. I believe in the predestination of the Elect because I am convinced scripture clearly and unambiguously teaches it.
A few questions, ok?I added the "unto salvation" for those who think the distinction is important.
Do you believe that men are predestined? Do you believe that those who are saved are predestined to be saved and those who are lost are predestined to be lost?
Why or why not?
But this is, for me, a very well thought out and reasoned position based on Scripture.
I typically approach many of these topics using what is known as Systematic Theology (which incorporates Biblical Theology alongside philosophy/ reasoning, the primary source being Scripture). That is how we arrive at many doctrines, like the Doctrine of the Trinity (definitions like "persons" and "natures" are philosophical questions).Correct. Based on scripture which is the final authority for all matters of faith and practice. That does not mean I did not engage my mind or use the reasoning skills God endued me with.
Philosophy has its place in causing us to ask questions like "Who am I?" or "Do I have a purpose?" According to the Christian worldview, those questions are answered in the pages of scripture. Romans 1 is helpful as an example.
Romans 1:20 For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made, so that they are without excuse.
While creation alone does not reveal the Gospel, it does reveal the fact that there is a Creator. This fact is both philosophical and epistemological. Questions of being are asked as well as questions to gain knowledge. The answers to these questions are either God-given (through scripture) or man-given. But for the Christian, by necessity, there must be an appeal to scripture for answers to the great questions of life and existence.
This is along my reasoning. I believe that everything that occurs is predestined to occur because God is God. Everything will occur as God knew before the foundation of the earth it would occur. And God decreed everything to occur by the act of creation.A few questions, ok?
Before God created anything did He know exactly who would be saved and who would not be saved? I believe He did.
If God wanted to, does He possess the power to intervene in any and every person’s life in such a way to bring them into a saving relationship with Himself? I believe He does.
So, if God knows the eternal outcome of all people, and He possesses the power to intervene to bring anyone to salvation, if He chooses to do so, then I believe the word “predestined” is an appropriate expression of that truth.
peace to you
So I am interested in the reasons one would arrive at predestination to salvation rather than just resting on Scripture as stating the view (I do not believe it does, but I do believe in your conclusion).
This is along my reasoning. I believe that everything that occurs is predestined to occur because God is God. Everything will occur as God knew before the foundation of the earth it would occur. And God decreed everything to occur by the act of creation.
It is important to turn to Scripture when answering these questions.
Ephesians 1:3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ, 4 just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we would be holy and blameless before Him. (Emphasis mine)
Romans 9:22-24 22 What if God, although willing to demonstrate His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction? 23 And He did so to make known the riches of His glory upon vessels of mercy, which He prepared beforehand for glory, 24 even us, whom He also called, not from among Jews only, but also from among Gentiles. (emphasis mine)
The Elect are predestined to reconciliation and eternal life in Christ. The reprobate? That is hotly debated among Monergists. Infralapsarians believe that God chose the Elect and passed over those who are not elect. Supralapsarians believe both the Elect and the reprobate are predestined to their ultimate ends. I have bounced between Infra and Supralapsarianism over the years but I tilt towards Supralapsarianism. The reason I tilt towards Supralapsarianism is that it seems like a theological copout for God to choose one group and then just give the other group the back of His hand.
First I point out that the question itself is philosophical, not biblical.Jon, how do you defend that view biblically?
First I point out that the question itself is philosophical, not biblical.
Then I explain that God is omnipotent, omnipresent, omniscient, and eternal. God does not "choose" as men would choose between people or courses of action.
If the person I am talking to is still in agreement I point out that everything has to be predestined to occur in accordance with God's counsel. It is decreed to occur (that potential is made a certainty) by God's act of creation.
Biblically my argument rests on the nature and act of God.
True. I assumed that we both held predestination to be absolute (extending to the lost and the saved). Apologies. I look forward to that thread.I am interested in how people arrive at their conclusions, but I do rest on scripture. As far as whether we agree on scripture, that is another matter for another thread.
I share your interest.I am interested in how people arrive at their conclusions, but I do rest on scripture. As far as whether we agree on scripture, that is another matter for another thread.
I assumed that we both held predestination to be absolute (extending to the lost and the saved). Apologies. I look forward to that thread.
What I believe about Scripture is that it ls "God breathed" and sufficient, without error. It is, IMHO, God's revelation of Himself to mankind in the context of redemption.
The final authority is Scripture. But I do not believe Scripture answers all of the questions we come up with.Let me ask this a different way. Are you in agreement with the maxim that "scripture* is the final authority for all matters of faith and practice?" In other words, when it comes down to matters like that nature of man, the nature of God, sin, righteousness, salvation, Christian conduct, morality et. al; that the final source of truth on these subjects is revealed in the pages of scripture?
I ask these things not because I think philosophy is inherently wrong (it is not). I ask these things to determine what is Jon's final authority for faith and practice.
*By "scripture" I mean the 66 books of the Bible, from Genesis to Revelation (no apocryphal writings).
The final authority is Scripture. But I do not believe Scripture answers all of the questions we come up with.