1 John 2:2

No, I do that to better differentiate the words that the AV puts into italics.
As far as I am aware, I have never read an edition that does that.

Not that there weren't, but I cannot recall ever seeing one.

 

Yes thanks. Is what I meant to ask were the words in italic in the 1611 KJV @ 1 John 2:2. I just checked and they were not in italic in the original 1611 black letter edition.

 

I had to edit my post for accuracy. Small roman type was used for supplied words in english in 1611.

 

§ 1. ITALICIZED WORDS OR PHRASES
The King James version was originally printed in the type style known as "black letter," which has the following appearance:



Words of the translation which were supplied to make the sense clear, but which were not represented in the Greek text used by the translators, were often set in small "roman" type:



In later editions, the ordinary text was set in roman type, with the supplied words in italics:

When Herod the king had heard these things, he was troubled.

This typographical feature was not employed very consistently in the 1611 edition; in many places the supplied words are not indicated as one might expect. This inconsistency was probably the fault of the printer's compositors, who very often modified even the spelling of words in order to lengthen or shorten a line of type.

The editors of the 1769 Oxford edition undertook, therefore, to regularize the use of italics by italicizing all words of the translation which did not have a counterpart in the text of Stephens 1550. Consequently, modern editions of the King James version are much more heavily italicized than the original: In Matthew, the 1611 edition uses roman type 69 times, whereas the more exact 1769 edition uses italics 384 times. The reader should be aware of the fact that the King James version is not, strictly speaking, a translation of Estienne 1550; and so in some cases the modern italics are misleading if used as an indication of the readings upon which the version is based. For example, in Mark 8:14 the modern editions italicize the words the disciples because they are not in Estienne, but it is evident that here the King James translators were following, as usual, the text of Beza 1598, where the words hoi mathetai are found. The following is a complete list of such cases.

Changes in the King James version

 

Abbreviations:
S - Stephens 1550
B - Beza 1598
E - Elzevir 1624
C - Complutensian Polyglot 1522
Er - Erasmus 1527
Vul - Clementine Vulgate 1592
Tyn - Tyndale 1535
Gen - Genevan Bible 1560
Bish - Bishops Bible 1568


Mark 8:14 Modern editions italicize the disciples, in accordance with S E. But the text of 1611 was probably based upon B.
Mark 9:42 Modern editions italicize these, in accordance with S B E. But the text of 1611 was probably based upon C Vul.
John 8:6 Modern editions italicize as though he heard them not at end of verse, in accordance with S B E. But the text of 1611 was probably based upon C S1546 S1549 and the Bishops' Bible.
Acts 1:4 Modern editions italicize them after assembled together with, in accordance with S E. But the text of 1611 was probably based upon B.
Acts 26:3 Modern editions italicize because I know, in accordance with S E. But the text of 1611 was probably based upon B.
Acts 26:18 Modern editions italicize and before to turn, in accordance with S E. But the text of 1611 was probably based upon B.
1 Cor 14:10 Modern editions print the words of them in ordinary type, in accordance with S B E. But the text of 1611 had them in italics, in accordance with Vul.
Heb 12:24 Modern editions italicize that of before Abel, in accordance with S B E. But the text of 1611 was probably based upon Er.
1 John 3:16 Modern editions italicize of God after love, in accordance with S E. But the text of 1611 was probably based upon C B.
Rev 11:14 Modern editions italicize and before behold, in accordance with S. But the text of 1611 was probably based upon B Vul.
Rev 19:18 Modern editions italicize both before free, in accordance with S B E. But the text of 1611 was probably based upon C.

 

I'm sorry, Van.
The verse does not say that.

It says "propitiation", which means "appeasement".
In the Greek, the word is , " ἱλασμός", and properly translated it means "satisfaction", among other English words.

It also says "world" or "all the world"...
1 John 2:2.

Not "the whole of humanity".

I'm not a follower of John Calvin.

I believe that they teach that God sent His Son to be the propitiation for the sins of the whole world...
The "world" of those who believe on His Son.

Yes, I believe that you are correct in this observation.
I also happen to agree with them on this, as well as many other teachings.

Also, according to the underlined,
I see that the "all" in Hebrews 2:9 is actually further defined in the verses that follow it...
Hebrews 2:10-18.

 

Ask the Lord.
He does indeed credit a person's faith as righteousness...

But where does that faith that formerly dead-in-sins saints use to do many things in this life, come from?
Hebrews 12:2.

Then it is merited, is it not?

If this is indeed the way it works,
then what men do or do not do with the Gospel is what God uses to determine who to save and who not to save.

Isn't that a merit versus de-merit system?

Van, God is not a respecter of persons.
He doesn't care what we do to "deserve" His grace, as we all deserve everlasting punishment.
Salvation is by grace through faith...
not because of it.


Good evening to you, sir.

 

One more reply before I take my leave, Van, and to re-address the OP:

From my perspective,
What you've submitted in the above is what is loosely known as paraphrasing, not translation.

Stated another way,
I see that you've imposed your own understanding of the words upon the text, instead of translating it, word-for-word ( or as closely as possible given the differences between English and Greek ).
In the underlined, you've substituted "the means of salvation" in place of "propitiation" / "appeasement" / "satisfaction" for the corresponding Greek word " ἱλασμός"...
While also substituting "whole of humanity" in place of "world" for the corresponding Greek word of " κόσμου".

If you are convinced that that sort of thing is permissible within the realm of faithfully translating God's precious and immutable words into other languages,
Then we will have to agree to disagree...
and I might add, I find that I must do so in as strongly a manner as is possible while remaining obedient to the Lord in matters of personal conduct.

To me,
it's one thing to personally understand a portion of God's words in a manner that does or does not strictly agree with what is written...
It's quite another to re-translate the Scriptures to fit what you believe that it says.



Please consider the above in the spirit that it is given,
and may God bless you with much wisdom and knowledge in your continuing studies of His word.

 

The various meanings of kosmos, 'world,' in the N.T. are to be found here:
“Kosmos” in John 3:16 – by AW Pink | Reformed Theology at A Puritan's Mind
it needs to be stressed that if kosmos in 1 John 2:2 means 'all humanity,' then God is propitiated toward all humanity and therefore all humanity is saved. But we know that God is not propitiated toward all humanity (eg. Psalms 7:11; John 3:18; 1 Thes.1:7-9). Therefore 1 John 2:2 does not mean 'all humanity.'

 

Twaddle. You use that word a lot. You could at least use a few synonyms to make it appear your vocabulary is bigger:

twaddle
[ˈtwädl]
NOUN

1. trivial or foolish speech or writing; nonsense.
   "he dismissed the novel as self-indulgent twaddle"
   
   
2. synonyms
   nonsense · rubbish · balderdash · gibberish · claptrap · blather · blether · rot · tripe · hogwash · baloney · drivel · bilge · bosh · bull · bunk · guff · eyewash · piffle · poppycock · phooey ·

 

it needs to be stressed that if kosmos in 1 John 2:2 means 'all humanity,' then God is propitiated toward all humanity and therefore all humanity is saved. But we know that God is not propitiated toward all humanity (eg. Psalms 7:11; John 3:18; 1 Thes.1:7-9). Therefore 1 John 2:2 does not mean 'all humanity.'

 

Note the effort at disinformation. Kosmos is used in a variety of ways, as pointed out in post #37. First the word is used to refer to the physical world. Here in John 2:2, it refers to the whole physical world (see post #17).
Secondly, if Christ is our propitiation, someone has to be propitiated by Christ. That someone is the Father; His justice and righteous anger against sin must be satisfied.. To effect the salvation of guilty sinners, God gave to the Lord Jesus Christ a vast crowd of them to redeem. (John 6:39 etc.). This He has done at measureless cost to Himself, propitiating the Father's righteous anger against sin by paying in His own Person for their sins. Not one of these will be lost.
Every elect sinner is united to Christ, and is transferred or conveyed 'into the kingdom of the Son of His love' (Colossians 1:13). But the election does not take place after we believe, but in eternity past. 'Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved.' 'The one who comes to Me i will by no means cast out.'