Featured Are Confessions of Faith biblical? Should Churches use them?

Yes, they are biblical and a helpful barrier or fence, used to protect the flock.
If it is a solid document, it can be called upon to bring unity to believers
A false church can have a statement of faith, but can quickly be shown to be false.
I have not seen any who post against the documents be able to answer them, not once.
Recent error concerning the proper place of works could have been avoided by learning such documents in detail.

 

Most of the early Christian "Creeds" have the heresy of "subordinationism", of Jesus Christ from God the Father, in the Godhead from eternity; and the Holy Spirit from the Father and Jesus Christ. This is against the Bible which Teaches that The Three Persons are equally YHWH, and therefore there cannot be any Person that is "greater" than the other.

The "Confessions", as in the WCF, also are man-made, theological biased, that also have heresies in them.

The Holy Bible, in its 66 Books, in the Original Autographs, IS ALONE THE Infallible, Inerrant, God-breathed, Word of Almighty God, represented in Versions like the KJV, NKJV, NASB, ESV, etc.

 

"SavedByGrace,



[The Holy Bible, in its 66 Books, in the Original Autographs, IS ALONE THE Infallible, Inerrant, God-breathed, Word of Almighty God, represented in Versions like the KJV, NKJV, NASB, ESV, etc.]

which is exactly what the 1689 teaches.

 

I am referring to things like the heresy that God was "pleased to permit", the fall of humans! This is BLASPHEMY!

OED says of "pleased", "Affected by feelings of satisfaction or pleasure; contented, gratified, in good humour"

 

are you suggesting that God did not allow the fall

 

I am saying that the language in this "confession", that says God was PLEASED to "allow" the fall, is blasphemy. HOW can God ever be PLEASED with man sinning against Him??? There is no way that this term used, can describe God ALLOWING man to sin.

 

If you " Read the whole confessional statement it uses the word permitted and it tells you why it used that word. Namely God did it for his own glory

 

God permitted the fall for His Glory? Are you serious? Can you provide ONE verse from the Bible?

 

As we can see from the above exchange, the problem with published creeds or confessions is that they reflect fallible human understanding of scripture.

But we should certainly know what we believe, thus we all should endeavor to create our own "what we believe" statement. By creating our document, we grow in our own understanding, and reinforce the basis for our rejecting the bogus views from the past.

Here is mine from about two years ago:
Layman's Confession of Faith

 

At its best, a confession is a declaration of what an individual, church, association, etc. believes that the Bible teaches. Unless it is wrong to confess what we believe, it is not wrong to have a confession of faith. Following the principle of confessing one's beliefs does not mean that everything confessed is biblical. Therefore, any confession of faith must be constantly brought back to the word of God to see whether it is so. On the other hand, some of those who confess to only believe the Bible will never clearly indicate just what they believe. It becomes an escape or hiding place away from the beliefs being known.

 

meaning exactly what?

 

Indeed acts2,;23 and a,cts 4;27 and 28

 

yeah, and even you have you heresy!

Of God's Covenant – God’s eternal covenant was to provide eternal life for those of His choosing, based on crediting their faith as righteousness, keeping His covenant of love

Which can be taken as "limited atonement"!

 

And WHERE in these passages, does it say that "God was PLEASED to permit the fall"? Give it up, as you will never be able to justify this utter nonsense!

 

Meaning some people claim they believe the Bible, but are very slippery when explaining what they believe the Bible teaches. Surely you have run across some of that type in your experience?

 

Folks note my statement was edited, the supporting verse - James 2:5 - was not included. The verse clearly shows God's individual election is based on some of the characteristics of the individual chosen, thus when chosen living in the world, and poor to the world, and rich in faith, thus having heard the word of God during their lifetime, and heirs of the promise to those who love God. No rational analysis would say this can be taken as Calvinism's "Limited Atonement!"

 

Is the passage clearly speak of God's determined counsel and foreknowledge. Well the foreknowledge is the sending of the Son,and the incarnation to accomplish redemption for the elect. And that's why the father spoke this is my my Beloved Son in whom I well pleased.

 

I think that you don't understand the English language! WHERE do you get God was PLEASED for the fall of humans, from ANY verse in the entire Bible? You are forcing verses to say what the do NOT, like "my Beloved Son in whom I well pleased", as IF this is the same as the fall!!!

 

Would add third option, that while the Bible only is the inspired and supreme authority for all doctrines and practices, creeds and Confessions are useful tools!