Featured Linguistics and Bible Translation

The Bible never instructs us to study Greek. Or does it?

It seems to me a waste of time when you already have a KJV. Unless one is going to a mission field where some language other than English is being spoken. Then you have two languages to learn. I doubt most Greek speakers ever gets involved in translating.

I met a fine fellow yesterday at the VA clinic who told me he is with the Gideons. I don't remember how many languages they print Bibles in and send them out but I remember that it was a great number. I specifically asked him about Japanese and he said they do send Bibles there. This tells me they already have a translation if indeed he knows what he is talking about..

There is no magic in the Greek language. A Greek speaker has no advantage over one who studies the KJV.

 

The Greeks are not translating the scriptures, are they?

 

The Greek Christians ought to be the sharpest Christians in the world. Has anyone noticed how they have been doing?

How about this. Our church congregation actually sent a missionary out of our church to Thessaloniki, Greece about 12 years ago.

 

First question. If you are looking for those words the answer is no.
Next question; it is the only Bible for me but you will need to make up your own mind. What you do is none of my business.

I do like logic. Why aren't the Greek Christians the most knowledgeable in the world for the reasons you have suggested? Why aren't they translating the Greek into English? What advantage is it to learn the Greek language if you already have a translation you are confident in? Unless, of course, you are called to translate the Greek into another language that is not English. How has the Greek language helped the Greek Christians? Can we learn something here?

 

The Bible never instructs us to study English.

The Bible never commands English-speaking believers to read and study only the KJV.

The Bible never states that the word of God is bound to the textual criticism decisions, Bible revision decisions, and translation decisions of one exclusive group of Church of England critics in 1611. The word of God is not bound (2 Tim. 2:9).

The Bible never teaches believers to commit sin by showing respect to persons or by showing partiality to one exclusive group of Church of England priests/critics in 1611 (James 2:9). The wisdom from God above is without partiality (James 3:17).

 

There may be many possible reasons.

Perhaps they have been incorrectly raised on and taught traditions of men [similar to how KJV-only teaching is a tradition of men]. Someone knowing Greek does not make them a sound Bible scholar just as someone knowing English does not make them a sound Bible scholar. In addition, present-day Greek in Greece is not exactly the same as New Testament Greek so that understanding present-day Greek does not make them an authority on NT Koine Greek. The NT is only part of the original-language Scriptures. There is a need for Hebrew and Aramaic scholars to translate the OT.

How could Greek-speaking believers be translating the Greek into English if they are not also English-speaking? They do not need to be translating the Greek NT into English since other Bible scholars have already done that task.

 

Well, you said you did not have a college degree and that might explain why you do not understand that you got an answer when, in reality, you got one.

 

Likewise, he never instructs us not to study English.

Likewise, he never commands to not read and study only the KJV.

God makes his ways known through the pages of scriptures and in his dealings with men. He in fact does choose one thing over another and when he does he calls that thing holy.

God has shown that he chooses one over another.

Ge 4:4 And Abel, he also brought of the firstlings of his flock and of the fat thereof. And the LORD had respect unto Abel and to his offering:

Ex 2:25 And God looked upon the children of Israel, and God had respect unto them.

Most times you clearly don't know what you are talking about.

 

To the highlighted text. Exactly. So why teach Greek to someone who is not going to need translating skills? That is my question.It is a waste of time.

 

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According to a sound definition and explanation of the term translation, a translation could be understood to act as a borrower. “The borrower is servant to the lender” (Prov. 22:7). One clear way in which a Bible translation could properly be considered to act as a servant would be in how it borrows, derives, or acquires its own text and its authority from its master or source original-language Scripture text or texts from which it is made (Prov. 22:7). By definition, a translation would be a borrower from its original language texts. As a borrower, a translation would act as servant to the lender or lenders [its original language texts] according to what is stated at Proverbs 22:7. Should what the Scriptures directly state about a borrower be denied or rejected? The specific words of the master original language texts of Scripture should or would determine which different words in another language should be in a Bible translation. The original meaning of the words as used in context in the master original language texts should give rise to which words should be used in a translation of those texts. The different words of a translation are under the authority of the original language words from which they are translated. The exact original-language words that proceeded directly from God set the standard and are the proper authority for what the words of a translation should say (John 12:49, Matt. 4:4). Therefore, it is sound and scriptural to conclude that the preserved original-language words of Scripture have greater authority than the translated words that borrow or derive authority from their underlying source or sources.

Since a Bible translation acts as a borrower, it could be considered wise to follow scriptural advice and consult more than one of them. There is safety in consulting a multitude of counsellors. "In the multitude of counsellors there is safety" (Prov. 11:14, Prov. 24:6). "Without counsel purposes are disappointed, but in the multitude of counsellors they are established" (Prov. 15:22). Perhaps the KJV was partially based on these proverbs since the KJV is a revision of several or multiple pre-1611 English Bibles.

By trying to demand or advocate use of only one English Bible, the word of God is in effect being bound to the textual criticism decisions, Bible revision decisions, and translation decisions of that translation's human translators. That would conflict with the scriptural assertion that the word of God is not bound (2 Tim. 2:9).

 

It was not a waste of time according to your trusted KJV translators.

Lancelot Andrewes (1555-1626), a KJV translator, wrote: "Look to the original, as, for the New Testament, the Greek text; for the Old, the Hebrew" (Pattern of Catechistical Doctrine, p. 59). Gustavus Paine pointed out that another KJV translator John Rainolds (1549-1607) "urged study of the word of God in the Hebrew and Greek, 'not out of the books of translation'" (Men Behind the KJV, p. 84). Mordechai Feingold cited where John Rainolds wrote: “We must diligently give ourselves to reading and meditating of the holy scriptures in tongues in which they were written by the holy Spirit” (Labourers, p. 14). Feingold also cited where John Rainolds asked: “Are not they blind, who prefer a translation, and such a translation before the original?” (p. 121).