John, if we are going to stay with what is written, then we need to include the passages that interpret the meaning of the sacrifices, not only the passages that describe the actions. Scripture does not leave the meaning of the sacrifices unexplained. It gives the interpretation in the text itself. If we set aside the passages where God explains what the sacrifices accomplished, then the discussion becomes an exercise in futility, because we would no longer be dealing with the whole of what is written.
Leviticus 1:4 says, “And he shall put his hand upon the head of the burnt offering, and it shall be accepted for him to make atonement for him.”
Leviticus 17:11 says, “For the life of the flesh is in the blood, and I have given it to you upon the altar to make an atonement for your souls. For it is the blood that maketh an atonement for the soul.”
Leviticus 16:21–22 says, “And Aaron shall lay both his hands upon the head of the live goat, and confess over him all the iniquities of the children of Israel, and all their transgressions in all their sins, putting them upon the head of the goat… and the goat shall bear upon him all their iniquities.”
Isaiah 53:6 says, “The Lord hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.”
Isaiah 53:11 says, “For he shall bear their iniquities.”
Isaiah 53:12 says, “He bare the sin of many.”
These verses are also what is written, and they present substitution directly in the language of Scripture. If we are going to stay with the text itself, then these passages must be included in the discussion.
Thank you. It was my intention that others provide passages as well.
I guess the issue here is that these verses (the biblical text itself and the language used) do not actually present substitution, although I realize many hold that to be what those passages teach. However it would be necessary for those who see substitution to prove their presuppositions correct.
Lets look at the biblical text:
1. Leviticus 1:4 says, “And he shall put his hand upon the head of the burnt offering, and it shall be accepted for him to make atonement for him.”
We cannot assume that this means "substitution" because that is foreign to the actual text. This practice (laying ones hands on something) was common, and it is mentioned numerous times in the Bible. If it means "substitution" when involving sacrifices then it is the only time it holds that meaning.
Any time we depart from the biblical text we have to explain the philosophy behind the departure. Viewing this as a substitution is obviously a departure (it necessitates applying ones own presuppositions).
2. Leviticus 17:11 says, “For the life of the flesh is in the blood, and I have given it to you upon the altar to make an atonement for your souls. For it is the blood that maketh an atonement for the soul.”
God gave the blood (the life is in the blood) to make atonement for the soul. The biblical text does not present this as a substitution. God did not say He gives the blood as a substitutiin for those making the sacrifice but that He gives the blood upon the altar to make atonement.
We cannot presuppose that "making atonement" itself is a substitution because that is not what "atonement" meant in the Bible. In the Old Testament Hebrew it was "to cover" and in the New Testament Greek it was "to reconcile". Neither are substitution.
I thought we were in agreement in sticking to the biblical text rather than discussing our own philosophical ideas about the text.
3. Leviticus 16:21–22 says, “And Aaron shall lay both his hands upon the head of the live goat, and confess over him all the iniquities of the children of Israel, and all their transgressions in all their sins, putting them upon the head of the goat… and the goat shall bear upon him all their iniquities.”
Again, you have the same issue. You are assuming substitution, bringing it into the text. The passage speaks of bearing, not substitution. You are reading into the passage some sort of transfer that is foreign to the actual text.
4. Isaiah 53:6 says, “The Lord hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.” Isaiah 53:11 says, “For he shall bear their iniquities.” Isaiah 53:12 says, “He bare the sin of many.”
Same problem. The idea of substitution is foreign to the actual biblical text.
Israel as a nation bore the sins of the few. We bear Christ's righteousness. We bear one anothers burdens. Christ bore our infirmities. We bear each others sorrow.
ἀνήνεγκεν means to sustain or carry, to bear. If we presuppose it is a substitution then we add "instead of us" to the meaning.
The biblical text itself does not state a substitution in any of those instances.
We cannot view any part of the Atonement as substitution and play it off that we are sticking to God's words (to the biblical text).
The philosophy that reads "substitution" into the biblical text would have to be explored, but it could never be objectively proven correct as it would not pass the text of Scripture.
@Anthony Pritchard , I realize you see "substitution" in those passages, but the fact you see it there does not negate the fact it is not literally in the biblical text. Many others (most Christians historically) do not see it there.
You would need to explain and defend your philosophy, but then it would just become a back and forth.
When I say "substitution" is not in the Atonement I am not talking about various theories about the Atonement. I am speaking of God's actual words ("what is written" ).
I want this thread to be focused on God's Word (on the biblical text) rather than ideas and theories about what the text might teach.