Propitiation

[Anthony Pritchard]

[Note: I will be leaving the forum in the near future, but I want to post a few more articles first, this is one of them]

​

Propitiation​

Where Eternal Mercy Meets Human Faith

The word “propitiation” literally means the satisfaction or appeasement of wrath, the act by which just anger is turned aside through an acceptable offering.

Propitiation is what Christ accomplished at the cross before anyone believed. In God’s eternal economy, the Lamb was slain from the foundation of the world. This does not mean God predetermined who would and would not receive salvation. It means that in God’s timeless perspective, the atoning work of Christ was already accomplished before the first sinner ever drew breath. Long before I existed, long before I committed a single sin, long before the world itself was formed, God saw the end from the beginning. Every sin I would ever commit was fully known to Him, and yet Christ still became the propitiation on my behalf. The sacrifice was not a reaction to my failures but an eternal provision rooted in God’s eternal compassion.

Scripture declares this plainly. “Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God” (Romans 3:25). And again, “And he is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world” (1 John 2:2). Christ’s work stands complete before any human response. It is the finished satisfaction of God’s wrath, accomplished outside of time and offered freely to all.

Propitiation is the once‑for‑all satisfaction of God’s wrath, the objective provision that stands outside of us and prior to us. Scripture never treats propitiation as the moment of personal salvation, but as the ground on which salvation becomes possible. The cross effected the provision; it did not automatically apply its benefits to individuals. That distinction is woven through the New Testament. Christ’s work is complete, but its saving effect is not imposed on anyone apart from faith.

The application of that propitiation happens when a person believes. That is when sins are blotted out, when cleansing occurs, when justification is granted, and when the new birth is experienced. Scripture consistently ties these applied realities to faith, not to the mere existence of an atonement. Confusing the provision with the application collapses categories the apostles keep distinct and leads to conclusions the text itself never makes. Christ effected propitiation for the world; God applies its benefits to those who believe.


~Tony

© A.K. Pritchard 1979 -

Free to use with proper attribution.

 

[Marooncat79]

Fyi. Some people on here do not believe in propitiation

 

[JonC]

Fyi. Some people on here do not believe in propitiation

Maybe, but I doubt it (I have not seen it on this board but I do not read all posts).

 

[JonC]

[Note: I will be leaving the forum in the near future, but I want to post a few more articles first, this is one of them]

This is a discussion board, NOT a digital outlet.

You are welcome to post your articles, as long as it was for you to discuss and defend those ideas.

What you are talking about is spamming this board with your articles (posting them and running rather than staying to discuss and defend your ideas).

Members shared this concern when you posted so many articles, but we (apparently wrongly) gave you the benefit of the doubt.


The articles that are not discussed will be addressed appropriately as spam and removed.

 

[Martin Marprelate]

[Note: I will be leaving the forum in the near future, but I want to post a few more articles first, this is one of them]

​

Propitiation​

Where Eternal Mercy Meets Human Faith

The word “propitiation” literally means the satisfaction or appeasement of wrath, the act by which just anger is turned aside through an acceptable offering.

Propitiation is what Christ accomplished at the cross before anyone believed. In God’s eternal economy, the Lamb was slain from the foundation of the world. This does not mean God predetermined who would and would not receive salvation. It means that in God’s timeless perspective, the atoning work of Christ was already accomplished before the first sinner ever drew breath. Long before I existed, long before I committed a single sin, long before the world itself was formed, God saw the end from the beginning. Every sin I would ever commit was fully known to Him, and yet Christ still became the propitiation on my behalf. The sacrifice was not a reaction to my failures but an eternal provision rooted in God’s eternal compassion.

Scripture declares this plainly. “Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God” (Romans 3:25). And again, “And he is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world” (1 John 2:2). Christ’s work stands complete before any human response. It is the finished satisfaction of God’s wrath, accomplished outside of time and offered freely to all.

Propitiation is the once‑for‑all satisfaction of God’s wrath, the objective provision that stands outside of us and prior to us. Scripture never treats propitiation as the moment of personal salvation, but as the ground on which salvation becomes possible. The cross effected the provision; it did not automatically apply its benefits to individuals. That distinction is woven through the New Testament. Christ’s work is complete, but its saving effect is not imposed on anyone apart from faith.

The application of that propitiation happens when a person believes. That is when sins are blotted out, when cleansing occurs, when justification is granted, and when the new birth is experienced. Scripture consistently ties these applied realities to faith, not to the mere existence of an atonement. Confusing the provision with the application collapses categories the apostles keep distinct and leads to conclusions the text itself never makes. Christ effected propitiation for the world; God applies its benefits to those who believe.


~Tony

© A.K. Pritchard 1979 -

Free to use with proper attribution.

Your definition and timeline of Propitiation are correct. However, you don't seem to have thought through the implications of this.
If we take your KJV rendering of 1 John 2:2, “And he is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world” (1 John 2:2), we notice that the words 'the sins of' are in italics, showing that they do not exist in any ancient manuscript. But if we take the view that the words are there by implication and that 'world' means 'all the people in the world' (which it rarely does), then either God is propitiated in respect of all the sins of all the people in the world (in which case everyone in the whole world will be saved), or the Bible is false in saying that the Lord Jesus is the propitiation for the sins of the whole world.

You need to have another think on this.

 

[DaveXR650]

Your definition and timeline of Propitiation are correct. However, you don't seem to have thought through the implications of this.
If we take your KJV rendering of 1 John 2:2, “And he is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world” (1 John 2:2), we notice that the words 'the sins of' are in italics, showing that they do not exist in any ancient manuscript. But if we take the view that the words are there by implication and that 'world' means 'all the people in the world' (which it rarely does), then either God is propitiated in respect of all the people in the world (in which case everyone in the whole world will be saved), or the Bible is false in saying that the Lord Jesus is the propitiation for the sins of the whole world.

It seems like the implications are always where the controversy starts. If propitiation is the sum total of being saved then is that implying that repentance and faith are unnecessary? And then someone will chime in and say no, repentance and faith are all that is necessary and God forgives based on simple faith and repentance and then quote verses that seem to indicate that this is true (at least on our part). And from those "implications" they begin to chip away at the atonement as being central to our salvation because after all, God only and always forgives those who ask for it period. Therefore the atonement must be to illustrate something, either an attitude of God towards us , our sin, or how we should love and obey, rather than actually accomplish something.

Then others say no, God is propitiated towards all men now and can be just and still justify sinners, but only those who come to him in faith, both in the atoning work of Christ and also his divinity and Lordship. And then others say yes but the implications of the timeline show that the one's who are to repent and believe are known before they are even born and since it makes no sense for those who have their sins propitiated to still be lost then the implication would be that the ones who have their sins propitiated are the same ones who eventually repent and believe and since there are no exceptions to this they must comprise a group we will call "the elect". And for this to really occur with any degree of precision there must be a high degree of determinism in operation on God's part.

And then others say that if that is true then the interactions between God and men recorded in scripture, as well as the warnings, must by implication of the above be fake in that the actions and responses of men are already determined to every degree. Then others point out that no, the interactions mentioned above indicate that God has created us "in time" and somehow, what is occurring is that our truly free actions fit in with God's sovereign plan both for our salvation and for world events. And then we can move on to the implications of whether it's possible even for a totally free will to exist with precise determinism by God and indeed, even if this determinism is true, does it not imply that if God looks ahead and "sees" the future somehow, is he not modifying his own plans based on foreseen contingent actions by men and therefore is not really determining the future since he is acting by implication, in response to men's actions?

And of course, back to propitiation, does the word itself not imply that it could remove the wrath of God without directly putting our sins on Jesus instead of us (even though scripture clearly states that Jesus bore our sins in his own body on the cross) which even the most skeptical person in the world has to admit implies "substitution" and even if they won't accept that implication, still must admit the scripture it there. And then of course we come back to the question of whether if Jesus really bore the sins of someone and all that implies, does God now helplessly wait for his sovereign response to God - even after Jesus went through all that without first consulting the same sovereign individual?

 

[Martin Marprelate]

[Note: I will be leaving the forum in the near future, but I want to post a few more articles first, this is one of them]

Perhaps you could become a moderator. Then you could stop people posting on your favourite threads.

 

[YeshuaistheLord]

It seems like the implications are always where the controversy starts. If propitiation is the sum total of being saved then is that implying that repentance and faith are unnecessary? And then someone will chime in and say no, repentance and faith are all that is necessary and God forgives based on simple faith and repentance and then quote verses that seem to indicate that this is true (at least on our part). And from those "implications" they begin to chip away at the atonement as being central to our salvation because after all, God only and always forgives those who ask for it period. Therefore the atonement must be to illustrate something, either an attitude of God towards us , our sin, or how we should love and obey, rather than actually accomplish something.

Then others say no, God is propitiated towards all men now and can be just and still justify sinners, but only those who come to him in faith, both in the atoning work of Christ and also his divinity and Lordship. And then others say yes but the implications of the timeline show that the one's who are to repent and believe are known before they are even born and since it makes no sense for those who have their sins propitiated to still be lost then the implication would be that the ones who have their sins propitiated are the same ones who eventually repent and believe and since there are no exceptions to this they must comprise a group we will call "the elect". And for this to really occur with any degree of precision there must be a high degree of determinism in operation on God's part.

And then others say that if that is true then the interactions between God and men recorded in scripture, as well as the warnings, must by implication of the above be fake in that the actions and responses of men are already determined to every degree. Then others point out that no, the interactions mentioned above indicate that God has created us "in time" and somehow, what is occurring is that our truly free actions fit in with God's sovereign plan both for our salvation and for world events. And then we can move on to the implications of whether it's possible even for a totally free will to exist with precise determinism by God and indeed, even if this determinism is true, does it not imply that if God looks ahead and "sees" the future somehow, is he not modifying his own plans based on foreseen contingent actions by men and therefore is not really determining the future since he is acting by implication, in response to men's actions?

And of course, back to propitiation, does the word itself not imply that it could remove the wrath of God without directly putting our sins on Jesus instead of us (even though scripture clearly states that Jesus bore our sins in his own body on the cross) which even the most skeptical person in the world has to admit implies "substitution" and even if they won't accept that implication, still must admit the scripture it there. And then of course we come back to the question of whether if Jesus really bore the sins of someone and all that implies, does God now helplessly wait for his sovereign response to God - even after Jesus went through all that without first consulting the same sovereign individual?

The atonement for sins had to appease, provide to God satisfaction for the sin debt we were obligated to Him for when breaking his law

 

[Anthony Pritchard]

Your definition and timeline of Propitiation are correct. However, you don't seem to have thought through the implications of this.
If we take your KJV rendering of 1 John 2:2, “And he is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world” (1 John 2:2), we notice that the words 'the sins of' are in italics, showing that they do not exist in any ancient manuscript. But if we take the view that the words are there by implication and that 'world' means 'all the people in the world' (which it rarely does), then either God is propitiated in respect of all the sins of all the people in the world (in which case everyone in the whole world will be saved), or the Bible is false in saying that the Lord Jesus is the propitiation for the sins of the whole world.

You need to have another think on this.

I agree that if ‘world’ means ‘every individual’ and propitiation equals automatic application, you get universalism. My point is that propitiation is provision, not automatic application. Christ is the propitiation in the sense of sufficient, once‑for‑all satisfaction, applied to those who believe. That avoids universalism without denying the plain language of 1 John 2:2.

 

[Ascetic X]

I agree that if ‘world’ means ‘every individual’ and propitiation equals automatic application, you get universalism. My point is that propitiation is provision, not automatic application. Christ is the propitiation in the sense of sufficient, once‑for‑all satisfaction, applied to those who believe. That avoids universalism without denying the plain language of 1 John 2:2.

You have explained propitiation in a concise and understandable manner.

For we know that all the sins of all humanity were paid for by the sacrifice of Christ, but each individual is responsible for accepting this amazing gift through faith. When we hear the gospel and respond to it, repenting of our sins, confessing Jesus as Lord, and believing God raised Him from the dead, we then receive eternal life in the new birth.

If Jesus died only for those who receive Him, everyone else can claim that they had no chance to be saved and enter heaven, since Jesus did not die for them.

But since Jesus did die for the entire world, whosever will may come. This is the good news. Everything has been done for everyone. Now each person must make their decision about it.

 

[Martin Marprelate]

I agree that if ‘world’ means ‘every individual’ and propitiation equals automatic application, you get universalism. My point is that propitiation is provision, not automatic application. Christ is the propitiation in the sense of sufficient, once‑for‑all satisfaction, applied to those who believe. That avoids universalism without denying the plain language of 1 John 2:2.

I don't follow your logic.
Is God the Father propitiated in respect of 'the whole world' by the shed blood of Christ? If so, and you take the view that 'world' means all the people in the world, I don't see how Christ is the propitiation only for those who believe, and I don't understand how propitiation becomes provision. If some are not saved, then God has not been propitiated and is still angry with them It is perhaps worth mentioning that the words 'believe' or 'belief' do not appear in 1 John 2:2, any more than the words 'The sins of' do. You have to write them in.

The fact is that the Lord Jesus was given a vast number of people to redeem by the Father, and He was commanded not to lose even one (John 6:39 etc.). This He has done, and the Father is propitiated in respect of all those people, which is why we see them at the Last Day standing before the throne of God, clothed in white and crying out, "salvation belongs to our God who sits upon the throne, and to the Lamb."

 

[JonC]

You have explained propitiation in a concise and understandable manner.

For we know that all the sins of all humanity were paid for by the sacrifice of Christ, but each individual is responsible for accepting this amazing gift through faith. When we hear the gospel and respond to it, repenting of our sins, confessing Jesus as Lord, and believing God raised Him from the dead, we then receive eternal life in the new birth.

If Jesus died only for those who receive Him, everyone else can claim that they had no chance to be saved and enter heaven, since Jesus did not die for them.

But since Jesus did die for the entire world, whosever will may come. This is the good news. Everything has been done for everyone. Now each person must make their decision about it.

I think sone forget the actual biblical text. The text states that Jesus Himself is the Propitiation for all sin. If we read more we will see that God set forth His Son as a Propitiation through His blood to be received by faith.

Propitiation is actually a real word (not a made up theological word). It is the act of gaining or regaining the favor or goodwill of someone or something.

@Anthony Pritchard is right that we need to allow the biblical text, the actual words, to limit our theology. Calvinism does not do this.

 

[Armchair Apologist]

[Note: I will be leaving the forum in the near future, but I want to post a few more articles first, this is one of them]

I'm sorry to hear this. I believe a few of us have given suggestions regarding how you should proceed. When you start a thread posting your written content, you had better not expect people to just pat you on the back saying "Great Job" or whatever!

Posting articles like this puts you in the "Hot Seat" and it will be "Peer Reviewed" whether you like it or not! You need to be ready to receive criticism and be ready to defend your position! These are all good things which makes a forum such as this a useful and worthwhile place. We all benefit from such discourse right?

Propitiation​

Where Eternal Mercy Meets Human Faith

The word “propitiation” literally means the satisfaction or appeasement of wrath, the act by which just anger is turned aside through an acceptable offering.

Seems like a "Textbook Definition" and I would agree. No arguments here.

Propitiation is what Christ accomplished at the cross before anyone believed. In God’s eternal economy, the Lamb was slain from the foundation of the world. This does not mean God predetermined who would and would not receive salvation. It means that in God’s timeless perspective, the atoning work of Christ was already accomplished before the first sinner ever drew breath. Long before I existed, long before I committed a single sin, long before the world itself was formed, God saw the end from the beginning. Every sin I would ever commit was fully known to Him, and yet Christ still became the propitiation on my behalf. The sacrifice was not a reaction to my failures but an eternal provision rooted in God’s eternal compassion.

Why did you leave out Eph 1:4 - According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world... Certainly you do not think we would just let this be did you? We are chosen in him before the foundation of the world just as Christ was slain from the foundation of the world! May as well throw in the passage that states that our names are written in the book of life from the foundation, and so forth! Sure, we could discuss "corporate election" and perhaps this would be a good thread for discussion and I would be interested in hearing how some of the "Provisionists" would define this. The immediate problem I see with "corporate" election is that wasn't even "corporate" with Israel (Rom 9:6)! Our salvation is very much an individual and personal thing both in the Old and New Testament!

Scripture declares this plainly. “Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God” (Romans 3:25). And again, “And he is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world” (1 John 2:2). Christ’s work stands complete before any human response. It is the finished satisfaction of God’s wrath, accomplished outside of time and offered freely to all.

1 Jn 2:2 is probably the most problematic passage for me which prevents me from getting fully onboard with the "L" but I also see some nuance between propitiation (hilasmos) and reconcilliation (kattalage) although where one ends and the other begins becomes a real head scratcher. The way I see it, propitiation is for God's benefit and reconciliation is for ours. IOW, propitiation is what makes atonement (reconciliation) possible and I guess we could get into heated arguments of "ordo saludis" and whether it is the chicken or the egg that comes first. I believe I would come down firmly on a "Definite Atonement" that Christ most certainly died to save "His people from their sins!"

Propitiation is the once‑for‑all satisfaction of God’s wrath, the objective provision that stands outside of us and prior to us. Scripture never treats propitiation as the moment of personal salvation, but as the ground on which salvation becomes possible. The cross effected the provision; it did not automatically apply its benefits to individuals. That distinction is woven through the New Testament. Christ’s work is complete, but its saving effect is not imposed on anyone apart from faith.

I am not sure who would teach that Christ's propitiatory payment is the moment of our personal salvation. I certainly do not believe this. Perhaps the more "fatalist" Supralapsarian Calvinists would? I am confident in saying that most Calvinists here would agree that each person is individually responsible to repent and believe the Gospel and it is at the moment when "faith happens" (efficacious grace) that one actually passes from death to life and becomes a new creature! We may be "chosen in him before the foundation of the world" but we are also commanded to "make our calling and election sure!"

The application of that propitiation happens when a person believes. That is when sins are blotted out, when cleansing occurs, when justification is granted, and when the new birth is experienced. Scripture consistently ties these applied realities to faith, not to the mere existence of an atonement. Confusing the provision with the application collapses categories the apostles keep distinct and leads to conclusions the text itself never makes. Christ effected propitiation for the world; God applies its benefits to those who believe.

People often speak of the Intent, Extent, and Application of the atonement and I do beleive that atonement would be the proper term here.

The intent of the atonement is to "Save all who believe." The extent of the atonement is that "all who believe are saved," and the application of the atonement is limited only to those who believe. I believe that both Calvinists and Arminians (Provisionists) would agree with what I have written here. Each group could rewrite these to be more in line with their particular position and this is where the theological barfights ensue but I like trying to live peaceably with all men and sharing a "cold one" with a brother wherever he may be in this argument.

 

[Martin Marprelate]

I think sone forget the actual biblical text. The text states that Jesus Himself is the Propitiation for all sin.

1 John 2:2, NKJV. 'And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world.' The text nowhere says that the Lord Jesus is the propitiation for 'all sin.'

If we read more we will see that God set forth His Son as a Propitiation through His blood to be received by faith.

Nor does the text state that this propitiation is to be received by faith. The actual text says that Christ is the propitiation for our sins, and also for the whole world. The word 'faith' does not actually appear in the whole of 1 John1; 2:1-11. The issue is, do we believe that Christ has propitiated the Father in respect of the sins of all the people in the world? If we say 'no;' the propitiation is only for those who believe, then we believe in limited atonement. If we say 'yes,' we believe in Universalism.' Therefore I suggest that we need to look at the text more carefully.
Faith is obviously a key word throughout the Bible, and no one is saved without repentance and faith, but 1 John 2:2 is not about faith, it is about propitiation.

Propitiation is actually a real word (not a made up theological word). It is the act of gaining or regaining the favor or goodwill of someone or something.

From the Concise Oxford Dictionary:
Propitiate: Appease (offended person etc.).
Propitiation: Appeasement; (esp. Christ's) atonement; gift etc. meant to propitiate.

@Anthony Pritchard is right that we need to allow the biblical text, the actual words, to limit our theology. Calvinism does not do this.

I have suggested to @Anthony Pritchard that his O.P. does not do this. You certainly do not do it (ever), and you have not done it here.

 

[SovereignGrace]

1 John 2:2, NKJV. 'And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world.' The text nowhere says that the Lord Jesus is the propitiation for 'all sin.'

Nor does the text state that this propitiation is to be received by faith. The actual text says that Christ is the propitiation for our sins, and also for the whole world. The word 'faith' does not actually appear in the whole of 1 John1; 2:1-11. The issue is, do we believe that Christ has propitiated the Father in respect of the sins of all the people in the world? If we say 'no;' the propitiation is only for those who believe, then we believe in limited atonement. If we say 'yes,' we believe in Universalism.' Therefore I suggest that we need to look at the text more carefully.
Faith is obviously a key word throughout the Bible, and no one is saved without repentance and faith, but 1 John 2:2 is not about faith, it is about propitiation.

From the Concise Oxford Dictionary:
Propitiate: Appease (offended person etc.).
Propitiation: Appeasement; (esp. Christ's) atonement; gift etc. meant to propitiate.


I have suggested to @Anthony Pritchard that his O.P. does not do this. You certainly do not do it (ever), and you have not done it here.

It was the Father who was propitiated, and if this was on behalf of all mankind, then His wrath has been appeased for all mankind. The universal atonementists do not realize the implications their theological construct demands.

 

[JonC]

The word “propitiation” literally means the satisfaction or appeasement of wrath, the act by which just anger is turned aside through an acceptable offering.

The problem with this definition - while it certainly describes what a couple of sects believe propitiation does - is that this is not what propitiation literally means.

Propitiation does have an unfavorable state in view, but the word itself does not necessitate the state to be just or an offering be made.

It is an English word, not a philosophical concept or word invented for theological purposes.


"Propitiation" is an English word from propitius (favorable). It literally means "to make favorable" which implies from an unfavorable state.

A boss could plan on demoting you because he dislikes your haircut. This may not be anger, just something he does not like. You could propitiate your boss' preferences by getting a hair cut. He would then view you favorably rather than a hippie.

Your wife could be angry at you and you apologize, propitiating her anger (the apology being a propitiation).

We have to be careful not to add into definitions - or add into definitions what is beyond the scope of the original as definitions encompass changes in meanings to provide contemporary views.


In the Bible it is through Christ that we are made new creations, made in His image, cleansed of all unrighteousness, die to sin, are reborn. In Him we escape the wrath to come.

Escaping the wrath to come by being "in Him, in Whom there is no condemnation" is propitiation. So in this case the unfavorable state is the wrath to come.

 

[Martin Marprelate]

I am not sure who would teach that Christ's propitiatory payment is the moment of our personal salvation. I certainly do not believe this. Perhaps the more "fatalist" Supralapsarian Calvinists would? I am confident in saying that most Calvinists here would agree that each person is individually responsible to repent and believe the Gospel and it is at the moment when "faith happens" (efficacious grace) that one actually passes from death to life and becomes a new creature! We may be "chosen in him before the foundation of the world" but we are also commanded to "make our calling and election sure!"

Spot on!

 

[JonC]

The text nowhere says that the Lord Jesus is the propitiation for 'all sin.'

"and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world."

True.... just the sins for the whole world. We do not know about aliens. Maybe they sin as well and God sent a Martin messiah to take care of their sins.

But yes, if there are sins apart from the sins of the whole world then they would be excluded.

Excellent point, @Martin Marprelate .

 

[Martin Marprelate]

The problem with this definition - while it certainly describes what a couple of sects believe propitiation does - is that this is not what propitiation literally means.

Propitiation does have an unfavorable state in view, but the word itself does not necessitate the state to be just or an offering be made.

It is an English word, not a philosophical concept or word invented for theological purposes.


"Propitiation" is an English word from propitius (favorable). It literally means "to make favorable" which implies from an unfavorable state.

A boss could plan on demoting you because he dislikes your haircut. This may not be anger, just something he does not like. You could propitiate your boss' preferences by getting a hair cut. He would then view you favorably rather than a hippie.

Your wife could be angry at you and you apologize, propitiating her anger (the apology being a propitiation).

We have to be careful not to add into definitions - or add into definitions what is beyond the scope of the original as definitions encompass changes in meanings to provide contemporary views.


In the Bible it is through Christ that we are made new creations, made in His image, cleansed of all unrighteousness, die to sin, are reborn. In Him we escape the wrath to come.

Escaping the wrath to come by being "in Him, in Whom there is no condemnation" is propitiation. So in this case the unfavorable state is the wrath to come.

So how did the Lord Jesus propitiate the Father? Did He get a haircut? Or did He say sorry on our account? Or do you think the cross might possibly have something to do with it?

 

[DaveXR650]

Faith is obviously a key word throughout the Bible, and no one is saved without repentance and faith, but 1 John 2:2 is not about faith, it is about propitiation.

This is true. I think the focus of the verse is that Jesus is the propitiation, period. For the original readers and for everyone else in the whole world and throughout history who would become aware and concerned that "propitiation" is something they need. The fact that no one is saved without repentance and faith does not mean, as some say, that therefore God forgives men based on simple repentance and faith. No, this could not occur without the atoning work of Christ and the propitiation it provides for all those who then come by faith and repentance.
Because this was done once and for all at a certain time the scripture is announcing that Jesus is the propitiation where our salvation is concerned. The exclusiveness of Jesus as the only real propitiation where our sin against a holy God is concerned is what I think the essential message of 1 John 2:2. And while it is completely true that faith and repentance are always there when someone is saved and without them there is no salvation - it is also true that they are not the real reason or cause of salvation. The cause is the work of Christ in atoning for our sins and the resulting propitiation of the Father.

I see Martin beat me to the post that we are in danger of serious, heretical error if we say that simple repentance and faith can result in salvation without propitiation toward God which we are told can only and was only effected by Christ. The timeline, the sequences of propitiation, faith and repentance and the implications of the extent of propitiation can be argued by honest brothers who have different theological perspectives. Those who argue that simple repentance and faith are all that is necessary, without the work of Christ in the atonement having a direct action towards us are in a different category.