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Galatians 3 - Christ being made a curse

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
@Martin Marprelate brought up this passage on another thread explaining how Christ took on our curse

i want to take the "limiting" factor @Anthony Pritchard suggested - that the biblical text is limiting - and examine the biblical text itself.

Here is the passage:

The Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand to Abraham, saying, “All the nations will be blessed in you.” So then those who are of faith are blessed with Abraham, the believer.

For as many as are of the works of the Law are under a curse; for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who does not abide by all things written in the book of the law, to perform them.”

Now that no one is justified by the Law before God is evident; for, “The righteous man shall live by faith.” However, the Law is not of faith; on the contrary, “He who practices them shall live by them.”

Christ redeemed us from the curse of the Law, having become a curse for us—for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who hangs on a tree”— in order that in Christ Jesus the blessing of Abraham might come to the Gentiles, so that we would receive the promise of the Spirit through faith. (Galatians 3:8–14)
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Who is the "us" who were "under the curse of the Law"?

Why did Jesus become a curse for those who were under the curse of the Law?
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
My answer:

Christ redeemed the Jews who were under the Law from the curse of the Lawin order that in Christ the blessing of Abraham might come to the Gentiles.
 

DaveXR650

Well-Known Member
Who is the "us" who were "under the curse of the Law"?
Galatians 3:10 using the NIV says "All who rely on observing the law are under a curse". To me that means Jews and also gentiles who are being told by Judaizers that they must still keep the law as Christ followers. That would be the groups in Galatians 3 being addressed in context. Other gentiles may have become Christians without knowing much of Judaism or the Jewish system, as those in Ephesians 2. They are told that they once walked according to the course of this world, and under the influence of the powers of the air and did quite well at being by nature children of wrath without the law. But they are in the same boat. Technically you might say they were not "under the curse of the Law" because they didn't have anything to do with the Law. Ephesians 2:12 says these folks were "separate from Christ, excluded from citizenship in Israel and foreigners to the covenants of the promise, without hope and without God in the world. But now you who once were far away have been brought near through the blood of Christ.
Christ redeemed the Jews who were under the Law from the curse of the Lawin order that in Christ the blessing of Abraham might come to the Gentiles.
Maybe it's just because of all the previous posts I have seen from you but I always sense that you are somehow desperately trying to somehow get out from under the fact that for all of us, Jew or gentile proselyte or gentile pagan, Christ's cross and his blood shedding death is the only source of our redemption, period, and whether it's described as removing a handwriting of ordinances against us, becoming a curse for us, nailing sin to the cross, bearing sin in his own body on the tree, sin being removed, or washed away, or whatever; it always comes back to a direct substitution of Christ for us, Jew or Gentile, who as it says in Ephesians, were children of wrath with no hope, with the only difference with the Jews being that they were officially breakers of the Law - with no hope.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Galatians 3:10 using the NIV says "All who rely on observing the law are under a curse". To me that means Jews and also gentiles who are being told by Judaizers that they must still keep the law as Christ followers. That would be the groups in Galatians 3 being addressed in context. Other gentiles may have become Christians without knowing much of Judaism or the Jewish system, as those in Ephesians 2. They are told that they once walked according to the course of this world, and under the influence of the powers of the air and did quite well at being by nature children of wrath without the law. But they are in the same boat. Technically you might say they were not "under the curse of the Law" because they didn't have anything to do with the Law. Ephesians 2:12 says these folks were "separate from Christ, excluded from citizenship in Israel and foreigners to the covenants of the promise, without hope and without God in the world. But now you who once were far away have been brought near through the blood of Christ.

Maybe it's just because of all the previous posts I have seen from you but I always sense that you are somehow desperately trying to somehow get out from under the fact that for all of us, Jew or gentile proselyte or gentile pagan, Christ's cross and his blood shedding death is the only source of our redemption, period, and whether it's described as removing a handwriting of ordinances against us, becoming a curse for us, nailing sin to the cross, bearing sin in his own body on the tree, sin being removed, or washed away, or whatever; it always comes back to a direct substitution of Christ for us, Jew or Gentile, who as it says in Ephesians, were children of wrath with no hope, with the only difference with the Jews being that they were officially breakers of the Law - with no hope.
Yes, you are reading into my posts.

I am talking about the "us" that were under the curse of the Law in Galatians 3:8–14 and what Christ being made a curse under that Law accomplished.

The only "Law breakers" were those under the Law, but even though that is true all have sinned and death spread to all humanity. Sin exists apart from the Law. But the Old Covenant that applied only to those under that Covenant has ended and the New Covenant which includes Gentiles has come.

I do not understand where you get "removing" or "washing away" from Galatians 3:8–14. This is what I mean by lifting verses from their context and mixing verses to make an idea, philosophy or theory appear "biblical".

The passage is about the Old and New Covenants, about Jesus redeeming those who were under the curse of the Law by Himself becoming a curse under the Law in order that in Christ the blessings of Abraham might come to the Gentiles.


Jesus redeemed mankind, purchased "the human family" from the bondage of sin and death, from oppression. BUT this passage is speaking of Jesus redeeming those who were under the curse of the Law by Himself becoming a curse under the Law in order that in Christ the blessings of Abraham might come to the Gentiles.

The Law was a bondage for those under the Law, but sin existed even among those who were apart from the Law. Abraham was not under the Law yet he sinned and he died.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
@DaveXR650

I agree that we cannot say Gentiles were ever under the Law. Here is the passage you offered:

Therefore, remember that formerly you who are Gentiles by birth and called “uncircumcised” by those who call themselves “the circumcision” (which is done in the body by human hands)— remember that at that time you were separate from Christ, excluded from citizenship in Israel and foreigners to the covenants of the promise, without hope and without God in the world.


We were separated from Christ, foreign to the covenants of the Promise.

You are right (even though you kinda sound like NT Wright here) that we were excluded from citizenship in Israel and foreigners to the covenants of the Promise.

It is good that the Old Covenant ended with the New Covenant. We can rightly say we were never under the Law. But we csn learn from the Law because God does not change. The righteousness manifested through the Law is the same righteousness manifested in Christ, in the New Covenant. It just has a deeper meaning (the Law was but a shadow).
 

DaveXR650

Well-Known Member
do not understand where you get "removing" or "washing away" from Galatians 3:8–14. This is what I mean by lifting verses from their context and mixing verses to make an idea, philosophy or theory appear "biblical".
I don't - from there. What I am saying is that the concepts of Christ doing something for all of us that we were unable to do for ourselves, directly, is being explained in one way in that passage, and the same thing in Ephesians 2 is being explained by just saying by the blood. What is being described is deliverance from a lost condition with no possibility of fixing this on our own. Blotting our a handwriting of ordinances, being brought near through the blood, becoming a curse for us, bearing our sin in his own body on the tree. You have been making a horrible mistake all along when you try to use a passage describing something against another passage describing the same thing in a different way. What you do is to constantly "read into my posts" when you assume that using more than one way to describe something or for that matter, to use New Testament interpretation of Old Testament passages, is lifting verses to make a philosophy appear biblical.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
I don't - from there. What I am saying is that the concepts of Christ doing something for all of us that we were unable to do for ourselves,
Ah... I think I get what you are saying (the "washing" part threw me off).

What I understsnd from the passage is that Jesus fulfilled the Law (His obefience) but also became a curse under the Law (hung on the cross). This was to redeem those who were under the curse of the Law (Israel) by Himself becoming a curse under the Law wirh the purpose that in Christ the blessings of Abraham might come to the Gentiles.

Absolutely we benefit from the Law being Jesus abolishing the Law. I was discusding the passage from the standpoint of those redeemed from the Law but you are right that the purpose was the inclusion of Gentiles in the Promise.

Too often "He became a curse for us" has been misused. This is what I was trying to tell @Anthony Pritchard . We have to read a passage within the context of that passage rather than select verses to use however we feel suits the plain meaning of the isolated verse.
 

DaveXR650

Well-Known Member
What I understsnd from the passage is that Jesus fulfilled the Law (His obefience) but also became a curse under the Law (hung on the cross).
Yes, he fulfilled the Law all the way - including the conclusion that the law breaker will die. Yet he was innocent. This is why people get outraged when you try to make a point that God will not punish the innocent. That is the whole outrageousness and uniqueness of the cross of Christ. That God did punish the innocent (Jesus) and let off the guilty (us - Jew and gentile) is exactly what happened on the cross. This is the great stumbling block for the Jews, and apparently for others. That being that there is no resolution, no new covenant, no new repentance or change that we can do to fix our situation before a holy God.

The argument Paul is making in Galatians 3 is that these Judaizers weren't even getting their own system right. If Abraham himself had been there with Paul he would have been mad at what the Jews were telling the gentile converts too!

As a side note you mention Jesus fulfilling the Law. There is another controversy among Christians. I tend to believe that Jesus did fulfill the law (active and passive obedience) for us and on our behalf and our union with Christ is essential for our salvation and it is how we obtain the benefits of Christ's work on the cross. It may also be a neglected doctrine. Penal substitution is not a stand alone issue where your sins are independently gone upon your asking, no matter what. Christ's obedience in his life and his passive obedience on the cross, where he bore our sin and guilt and wrath due us, is what we get in Christ and only in Christ. And, as you keep saying, it is there (in Christ) where you are a new creation, created to now be able to really do good works. Sometimes, there has been a tendency to separate out the concepts of our salvation to where you can have people whose sins have been covered and removed, who are the same people they always were, only now with a get out of jail free card and then we spend the rest of our lives trying to convince them to actually live a Christian life.

Some Calvinists get around this by saying that regeneration (or being born again) occurs before faith. I don't agree with that but I will say there is no one who savingly believes who is not regenerated, in union with Christ, or born again, the exact time frame I don't claim to know. There is no one running around with their sins forgiven who is not in union with Christ. But union with Christ certainly includes him being the penal substitute for the wrath of God against sin, the propitiation for us, and the one who bore all our sin. It is simply a scriptural fact that this is included with being in union with Christ and indeed it is the central point. It is the awareness of our sin separating us from God that is the principle grace given to those who hear the gospel and it is the primary work of the Holy Spirit in the hearts of all who get saved.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Yes, he fulfilled the Law all the way - including the conclusion that the law breaker will die. Yet he was innocent. This is why people get outraged when you try to make a point that God will not punish the innocent.
I never made the point that God will not punish the innocent. I quoted two passages stating that it is unjust to punish the innocent and evil to punish the innocent. I stated three passages that described the punishment of Jesus as "oppression" (the unjust exercise of power), "unjust judgment" and "revile" (abuse).

Those word God's words, not mine.

My conclusion is that the punishment of God is never "unjust", never "oppression", never "abuse", never "revile". Instead God is always Just and acts in accordance with His revealed nature.

I own that conclusion. It belongs to me. BUT what you have said people find outrageous were God's words. They belong to Him.


People get outraged because their theory does not hold up to the biblical text. They reason away the text - "oh... punishing the innocent and clearing the guilty is only unjust if we do it...how God became oppressive, abusive, and judged with unjust judgment is a mystery."


Here you are pretending we disagree about many things we do not. I do not know why as we have enough actual differences to talk about.
 

DaveXR650

Well-Known Member
I never made the point that God will not punish the innocent. I quoted two passages stating that it is unjust to punish the innocent and evil to punish the innocent. I stated three passages that described the punishment of Jesus as "oppression" (the unjust exercise of power), "unjust judgment" and "revile" (abuse).
Well you certainly did if you also believe God is just. You're so all over the place you can't even discuss an issue involving a single point without contradicting yourself.
My conclusion is that the punishment of God is never "unjust", never "oppression", never "abuse", never "revile". Instead God is always Just and acts in accordance with His revealed nature.
And my point is that Christ bearing our sin on the cross is indeed "unjust" toward Christ who was innocent. And it allowed God to be just and still justify sinners. This explains Christ's almost bizarre behavior at his mock trial. He deliberately chose not to defend himself because he knew he was taking on our sin and acting on our behalf and therefore was doing God's will in bearing our guilt - which was just in God's eyes (thankfully for us). For his part, he technically won his case, and was put to death anyway by the hands of evil men for several reasons, one of them being to bear our sin, but they didn't know any of that.
Here you are pretending we disagree where we do not. I do not know why as we have enough actual differences to talk about.
You are really hardening in your heretical beliefs and I hope you will take some time and think this over. I wish the other moderators would step in and give you some time to do so. I try to be as conciliatory as I can and I was hoping you did agree basically but maybe had some concerns about the way in which PSA is expressed by some in the shallow evangelical community and was hoping that maybe you were just concerned about the lack of emphasis on our need for new birth and union with Christ. But I see there is truly a deep seated animosity toward substitutionary atonement which I believe is central to Christianity.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Well you certainly did if you also believe God is just.
No, I absolutely do not believe that God opressed Jesus, abused Jesus, unjustly punished Jesus.

Let me explain. We know that Muslims do not worship God when they worship Allah. Do you know why the Muslim god and the God of the Bible are not the same? Because the attributes of their god do not match the attributes of God as He has revealed Himself to us.

Same with those who proclaim God punished the innocent and cleared the guilty; that the punishment Jesus suffered, the oppression, unjust judgment, abuse was God's punishment. They worship another god because God has revealed thar He is Just, that His judgment is Just, that He is holy, that He is righteous.

Any person who declares that God's punishment is oppression, abuse and unjust judgment, that God punishes the innocent and clears the righteous worships a god different from the God of the Bible. Period. There is no way around it.


Is PSA shallow? It depends on what you compare it to. It holds a shallow view of sin (believing it is a matter of jurisprudence, remedied by punishment) compared to other Christian views. It holds a shallow view of divine justice by holding punishment satisfies justice, when compared to most other Christian views.

BUT we have to remember that your view differs from many who believe PSA. Many PSA theories do not believe thar God oppressed, judged with unjust judgment, or abused Jesus. Manu PSA theorists hold these theological aberrations separate from how they view God (the "rooms" @Anthony Pritchard mentioned). When I was a PSA theorist (and a Calvinist) I never claimed that God oppressed, abused, or engaged in unjust judgment.

The issue is when PSA theorists are carried away from thr biblical God (the God who judges righteously, Who dies not punish the innocent or clear the guilty, Whose judgment is always just rather than oppression, unjust judgment and abuse to worship a god foreign to God as He has revealed Himself to us in His Word.

In Psalm 22 we read the Servant forsaken to suffer, crying out for God to deliver Him. His appeal was to God's absolute faithfulness, the faithfulness you reject.
 
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