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Featured Let's Talk About The Word Draw..

Discussion in 'Calvinism & Arminianism Debate' started by Reformed1689, Mar 26, 2019.

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  1. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    The subjects reflect who All applies .

    Mark 12 suggest all who saw him. total who knew or met the former cripple.
    Matt 12:15 we should understand only the sick were healed. Total # of sick, healed individually
    The total spirits or doctrines should not be believed .as one

    Πας means all but not as a general group(s). but individuals of the group. like the total class was invited or each member of the class was sent an invitation
    It is important because of the individual relationship God wants with us, not as a group
     
  2. McCree79

    McCree79 Well-Known Member
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    Its does refer "to totality with focus on its individual components, each, every, any". This use, while focus on individual components, does claim the totality of a sum.

    The second usage is "any entity out of a totality". This usage claims "all" of a sum out of the totality.
    *requires plural, w/o article.

    So if the second usage is correct Jesus "draws/drags" a group of individuals out of the totality.
    If the first usage is correct Jesus draws the totality to himself.

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    #62 McCree79, Mar 28, 2019
    Last edited: Mar 28, 2019
  3. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    What other uses? It has in all the uses you have shown.

    Which means.....oh wait, drag.
     
  4. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    I don't know how many times we have to say that.
     
  5. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    no, There has not been a direct means to pull to dragging suggests a connection to pull in a direction by. draw does not ,, especially when lifted up on the cross,
     
  6. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    It is not accurate, It does not agree with other verses
     
  7. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    You keep talking about lifted up on the cross but the whole context of John 12 totally blows your interpretation out of the water.
     
  8. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    Except we have already exegeted the passages to show that it does.
     
  9. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    What are you saying?

    Jhn 3:14

    And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up:

    Jhn 8:28

    Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.
     
  10. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    Rev 3:19

    As many as I love, I rebuke and chasten: be zealous therefore, and repent.

    Rev 3:20

    Behold, I stand at the door, and knock: if any man hear my voice, and open the door, I will come in to him, andwill sup with him, and he with me
    Rev 3:21

    To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne.


    Dragging the man, to them open the door? or asking to let Him in?
     
  11. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    You are fishing for cherry-picked verses. You can't win an argument that way. We were discussing John 12. The whole context is all people groups, not all people (individuals).

    Not all people are drawn to Him. They simply are not. Nor does the Bible say they are.
     
  12. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    Who has ears to hear? It is not everyone. It is those that are the chosen. They hear because their will has already been changed to accept Christ. No, it is not a simple invitation.
     
  13. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    When you say God chooses one for salvation, you are also saying God chooses one that do not get salvation.
    If God created me knowing I was non elect then He created me just to send me to hell. or I can blame God for sending me to hell since I had no choice.
    This is not optional but is the result of predestination.
     
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  14. McCree79

    McCree79 Well-Known Member
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    Does God not know all things?

    Does he not know the future?
    Does he not declare the future?

    *If he created someone knowing they would not accept him according to their own "free will", yet he created them anyway...does he not in effect send them to hell?*

    "Declaring the end from the beginning and from ancient times things not yet done, saying, My counsel shall stand, and I will accomplish all my purpose,’" Isaiah 46:10

    How could he make that statement if he doesn't even know the future?




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    #74 McCree79, Mar 28, 2019
    Last edited: Mar 28, 2019
  15. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    He passes over them. Yes. That is correct. Ever read Romans 9?




     
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  16. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    I absolutely agree. "Double predestination" is the logical conclusion of election because God still creates those who are not "chosen" for salvation. It's the "Potter and the clay" analogy - some made as vessels of wrath, others as vessels of mercy.

    The actual "blame", however, still resides with the condemned. Insofar as salvation they are "passed over", their condemnation based on their own actions, but in the end they are "predestined" for condemnation because God has still created them.
     
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  17. McCree79

    McCree79 Well-Known Member
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    Does God not know all things?
    If he creates someone and knows they will not accept him, why does he still create them? In effect it is the same logical conclusion. Hod created them knowing they would go to hell. Open theism is the only escape from this conclusion.

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  18. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    You must be on a phone. My phone also worships Hod.

    I am not really sure what you are asking me. Does God not know all things? No. God does know all things. :)

    If God created men who God knew were destined for Hell then this is "double predestination" because God actively created men for that purpose.
     
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  19. McCree79

    McCree79 Well-Known Member
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    Yes, I am on a phone. :)

    Agreed

    Apologizes. I seen your "I agree" statement and assumed you agreed with the whole argument being presented.



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  20. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    What if we put aside both Greek and English, and put aside the passages where we debate the meaning (Jn.6:44; 12:31) , and just look at way it is used in all other passages in the New Testament and see if there is any consistent meaning? For example, in all other texts where we find this Greek term used does what is being drawn or allured come simeltaneous as being drawn or allured or fails to come or the coming is delayed? Is what being drawn or allurred part of that action or always passive with regard to the subject doing the action and thus the object being acted upon?
     
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