37818
Well-Known Member
How does denial Jesus bears another's sins not allow us to receive Christ's righteousness?If so, then your view is a denial that we bear Jesus' righteousness. But why misrepresent opposing beliefs?
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How does denial Jesus bears another's sins not allow us to receive Christ's righteousness?If so, then your view is a denial that we bear Jesus' righteousness. But why misrepresent opposing beliefs?
That is NOT what I said. I said if I applied your method that would be the logical conclusion.How does denial Jesus bears another's sins not allow us to receive Christ's righteousness?
John, I understand what you are saying, but the issue is not whether we “bear” righteousness in the same way Christ bore sin. Scripture never says we bear Christ’s righteousness for Him. It says His righteousness is imputed to us. That is a gift, not a burden. Christ bearing our sins is substitution. We receiving His righteousness is imputation. These are not parallel actions, and Scripture does not treat them as such.That is NOT what I said. I said if I applied your method that would be the logical conclusion.
I DO NOT believe you deny Jesus nore our sins or that we bear His righteousness. I believe we understand "to bear" differently sp we disagree.
I believe it means the same in both instances. We bear His righteousness now (and in a fuller sence in the future) just as He bore our sins.
You believe Christ bore our sins instead of us but we bear His righteousness in solidarity with Him.
Applying your logic that the traditional Christian view that "Jesus bears our sins" is bearing in solidarity equates to a "denial of bearing anothers iniquity" necessitates that conclusion.
IF my belef that Jesus bears our sins (not "instead of us" is a denial that one can bear another's sin THEN my believe that we bear His righteousness (not "instead of") is a denial that one can bear Another's righteousness.
You cannot have it both ways. You cannot say "to bear" includes "instead of" when it suits your theory but insist otherwise when it does not support your belief.
But where you went wrong (morally) was in your declaration that not to add "instead of" is to deny that one can bear another's sin. That put your integrity at stake.
It would have been better to simply acknowledge that you and I believe Jesus bore our sins differently and then we could have discussed our differences.
Tony,I am also aware of the unalterable principle of wages. When I work, I earn wages, and those wages have real substance. A debt is not satisfied by a symbol or a representation, but by payment in full. Scripture says the wages of sin is death.
Brother,John, I understand what you are saying, but the issue is not whether we “bear” righteousness in the same way Christ bore sin. Scripture never says we bear Christ’s righteousness for Him. It says His righteousness is imputed to us. That is a gift, not a burden. Christ bearing our sins is substitution. We receiving His righteousness is imputation. These are not parallel actions, and Scripture does not treat them as such.
So the question 37818 raised still stands. Denying that Christ bore our sins in the penal sense does not protect imputation. It undermines it. If the debt of sin was not actually paid, then there is no basis for God to credit righteousness to the sinner. The wages of sin is death. A debt was owed, and a debt was paid. That is why the atonement cannot be merely representative.
Brother, I understand what you are saying, but I am not building my view on post‑Reformation categories. I am using the language Scripture itself uses. Scripture speaks of sin as a wage in Romans 6:23. Scripture speaks of sin as a debt in Matthew 6:12. Scripture speaks of ordinances against us being blotted out in Colossians 2:14. These are not later theological inventions. They are the words God chose.Brother,
You misunderstood my point.
I was not saying that the post of @37818 denies imputation. I was saying that Christians who view Christ as bearing our sins without adding "instead of us" are not denying Christ bore our sins.
His accusation was that I (and by association millions of Christians throughout history) deny Jesus bore our sins because they reject his understanding of how He bore their sins (they and I view this as solidarity- an exchange via reconciliation).
It is wrong to declare one must hold your understand or deny the passages you are trying to understand.
I probably should not have provided an example of how I could make that same type of false statement against his view as it threatens to hijack the conversation.
To clarify-
I absolutely accept that you and @37818 believe that Jesus bore our sins and we bear His righteousness.
I also believe that Jesus bore our sins and we bear His righteousness.
It would be wrong for either of us to accuse the other of denying that truth
BUT we believe that Jesus bore our righteousness differently. That is worth discussing. Using the discussion as an opportunity to mistepresent the other is not worth the effort. It is wrong and disrespectful.
Anyway - I do believe Jesus bore our sins. God laid our iniquity on Him. We bear His righteousness. God lays Hos righteousness on us.
Our sins were imputed to Him and Hos righteousness is imputed to us.
We disagree in the "how" and the implications.
Brother, I appreciate the historical notes, but my concern is not to place Luther or Calvin into a system. My concern is to let Scripture define the categories. Scripture says our sins were laid on Christ. Scripture says He bore our iniquities. Scripture says the chastisement of our peace was upon Him. Scripture says the wages of sin is death. Scripture says He was made sin for us. These are not later theological constructions. They are the words God chose.Luther's "Great Exchange".
PSA theorists often refer to the "Great Exchange" of Luther. Luther did not use those words, but he often spoke of this solidarity (most often as a marriage where all that is the husband's is the wife's and all that is the wife's is the husband's).
But Luther was not a PSA theorist. He has been superficially penned as one (his atonement theory was a non-specific blend of Aquunas and Christis Victor).
Luther viewed this "exchange" as solidarity. Here is his words (perhaps they better explain this better than I):
"Thou, Lord Jesus, art my righteousness, but I am thy sin. Thou hast taken upon thyself what is mine and hast given to me what is thine. Thou has taken upon thyself what thou wast not and hast given to me what I was not."
“If I have sinned, my Christ, in whom I believe, has not sinned; all mine is His, and all His is mine;”
"It is impossible now that her sins should destroy her, since they have been laid upon Christ and swallowed up in Him, and since she has in her husband Christ a righteousness which she may claim as her own, and which she can set up with confidence against all her sins, against death and hell, saying: “If I have sinned, my Christ, in whom I believe, has not sinned; all mine is His, and all His is mine;” as it is written..."
"Christ by His birthright has obtained these two dignities, so He imparts and communicates them to every believer in Him, under that law of matrimony of which we have spoken above, by which all that is the husband’s is also the wife’s."
The first to use a great exchange was Calvin's "Wondrous Exchange". This was PSA.