AV1611 Translator Sidenotes 3: S.Iohn

S.Iohn V:2 (KJV1611):

Now there is at Hierusalem
by the sheepe ||market, a poole,
which is called in the Hebrew tongue
Bethesda, having five porches.

||Or, gate.

S.Iohn V:2 (KJV1611alt):

Now there is at Hierusalem
by the sheepe gate, a poole,
which is called in the Hebrew tongue
Bethesda, having five porches.

John 5:2 (KJV1769):

Now there is at Jerusalem
by the sheep market a pool,
which is called in the Hebrew tongue
Bethesda, having five porches.

John 5:3 (HCSB):

By the Sheep Gate in Jerusalem
there is a pool,
called Bethesda in Hebrew,
which has five colonnades.

John 5:3 (NLT):

Inside the city,
near the Sheep Gate,
was the pool of Bethesda,
with five covered porches.

John 5:3 (NASB):

Now there is in Jerusalem
by the sheep gate a pool,
which is called in Hebrew Bethesda,
having five porticoes.

Yep, all those evil MVs have "gate",
the REAL KJVs second choice. But then,
most KJVOs don't read the Real KJV1611
but the MV-KJV1769

 

S.Iohn V:13 (KJV1611):

And he that was healed, wist not
who it was : for Iesus had conueyed
himselfe away, ||a multitude being
in that place.

||Or, from the multitude that was

Note that the "Or" translator footnotes
show variant ways of saying the same
thing in English (i.e. ;preservation
of the message, not preservation
of the exact words).

S.Iohn V:13 (KJV1611alt):

And he that was healed, wist not
who it was : for Iesus had conueyed
himselfe away, from the multitude that was
in that place.

NOtice the main reading contains 22 words,
flawed KJVO logic the main reading TAKES TWO WORDS
AWAY FROM the alternative reading.
BTW, i do lots of professional proofreading
of technical texts, "wist" is NOT used
in 21st Century English.

The favorite version of some KJVOs takes
the primary reading of the KJV1611:
John 5:13 (KJV1769):

And he that was healed wist not
who it was: for Jesus had conveyed
himself away, a multitude being
in that place.

Reading modern versions (other than KJV1769 )
we find that the man didn't know who healed
his lameness. My dictionary says:

WIST - pl or pp of WIT2

Checking around the dictionary that means
that "wist" is the plural or past participle
of "wit"2

WIT2 - [Archaic]to know or learn
ah ha! "Wist not" means to not know.

I think it would be easier to teach the
8th grade Sunday School class how
to read other versions than to
use the dictionary -- well in Sunday School
class i guess you could teach them both?

Another thing that the other versions don't
seem to agree on is wheather Jesus just
went through the crowd or disappeared from
the man's sight into the crowd.
Is there anybodies doctrine gonna change
over this verse? I think this verse is
just as pretrib as it is postrib.

 

S.Iohn VII:15 (KJV1611):

And the Iewes marueiled, saying,
How knoweth this man ||letters,
hauing neuer learned?

sidenote: || or, learning.

S.Iohn VII:15 (KJV1611alt):

And the Iewes marueiled, saying,
How knoweth this man learning,
hauing neuer learned?

The evil Third Millinnium Bible (TMB)
which dares to ADD quotation marks (") says:

John 7:15 (TMB):

And the Jews marveled, saying,
"How knoweth this man letters,
having never learned?"

 

Previous item revisited:

---------------------------------
S.Iohn I:41 (KJV1611):

He first findeth his owne brother
Simon, and saith vnto him, We haue
found the Messias, which is, being
interpreted, ||the Christ.

||Or, the anointed.

S.Iohn I:41 (KJV1611alt):

He first findeth his owne brother
Simon, and saith vnto him, We haue
found the Messias, which is, being
interpreted, the anointed.

Interesting, the translators of the
KJV give the translation in Greek (Christ)
and in English (the anointed /of God/).

The NIV and NLT both give "Christ" without footnote.
The NASB gives "Christ" in the text but
in the footnote: "Gr Anointed One".

The real KJV, the KJV1611 edition,
the real AV = authorized version, authorized
by King James, the real KJB says what
we know: "Christ" is a transliteration of
the Greek term for what in English would be
"the Anointed".

The Hebrew term translaterated into English
is "Messiah". "Messiah" the Hebrew term
means "the Anointed (of God)"

HomeBound: "My KJB and the 1611 agree with each other,
"Christ." Again I ask, why are you quoting sidenotes?
Isn't God's word enough?

God's written word, the Holy Bible, is not enough.
You also need to know The Anointed One, Jesus.
Jesus is the living word of God.
The Bible, the written word of God speaks of
Messiah Jesus, the living word of God.
What the living word of God, Christ Jesus said
is recorded in the written word of God, the Holy Bible.

We study the sidenotes in the real KJV1611AV because
they help us to understand Jesus better.

The term "Christ" is a stumbling block to
millions of Jews both alive today and who
died in the past. The banner "CHrist" has
been misued by evil people who have killed
millions of Jews.

Jesus is the Christ.
The term "Christ" offends Jews.
"Christ" is Greek for "the anointed".

"Messiah" is Hebrew for "the anointed".
The term "Messiah" does NOT offend Jews.
Jesus is the Messiah.
(In fact, while you are using Hebrew terms,
might as well use "Yeshua" which is in
Hebrew as "Jesus" in English (Or "Iesus" is
for you KJV fans).)

Genesis 12:3 (KJV1769):

And I will bless them that bless thee,
and curse him that curseth thee:

To use the term "Christ" to a Jew is to
curse Abraham and risk being cursed
yourself.

Interesting that some are so hot to defend a
Greek term "Christ" that offend Jews
when there is a perfectly Good English Term:
"Anointed One".

 

Anybody interested in a discussion of
real text from the real KJV1611?
Or would folk rather argue opinions
and hunches and skip looking
at the facts?

 

Here KIV1611 = The King Iames Version, 1611 Edition

S.Iohn VII.23 (KIV1611):
if a man on the Sabbath day receiue
circumcision, \\that the Lawe of
Moses should not be broken; are ye
angre at me, because I haue made a
man euery whit whole on the Sabbath day?

sidenote: || or, without breaking the Law of Moses

"Or" here denotes another way to interpert the
source language into English.

A second best reading of the passage would thus be
as follows. Personally I follow this meaning much
more redily than the first:

S.Iohn VII.23 (KIV1611alt):
if a man on the Sabbath day receiue
circumcision, without breaking
the Law of Moses; are ye
angre at me, because I haue made a
man euery whit whole on the Sabbath day?