Consistency in Interpreting Prophecy

In another thread about Isaiah 9, my good friend Dr. Bob (who I'm sure could run circles around my knowledge of interpreting scriptures) cited Luke 4:17-20 as proof that Isaiah 9's prophecy about the kingdom not being completely fufilled while Christ was physically here on earth. (Which, I too agree & do not consider the present Body of Christ as fulfilling the promise of Isaiah 9.)

OTOH, Peter in Acts 2:14-21 in explaining the events of the day of Pentecost cites the complete prophecy found in Joel 2:28-30 as being this prophecy's fulfillment. If what happened on the day Pentecost was the complete fulfillment of Joel's prophecy, shouldn't they have experienced the things mentioned in Acts 2:19-20 as well?

Was Peter "completely correct" in his assertion that the events that took place on the day of Pentecost was the complete fulfillment of Joel's prophecy?

IOW, should the principle derived from Jesus's statements in Luke 4 in explaining Isaiah 9 be the universal standard of reference of determing where part of a prophecy is being fulfilled and another part still waits to be fulfilled?