Could this be the stone?

What I do is reject a man-made myth-KJVO.
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Michelle:What you have rejected is the power and providence of God concerning and over his words, and deny the evidence therof.

Sorry, but you should confine your attempts at reverses to driving & football. It's the KJVO who decides for him/herself that god retired in 1611, freezing his word in that time.


Believing this is NOT MYTH, but FACT and FAITH in God and what God has said.

No, it's ADDING a man-made myth to what God said. Please show us where He justifies the KJVO myth.


You are the one believing the man made myth that God has not preserved his pure words, and all of them as he has said.

Entirely wrong. Please cut & paste any post from any message board where I've said any such thing, or you'll have proven yourself a liar.


You are believing the lies of men, which are contrary to God's words, to which make it a myth, or the fables of men.

Again, you're trying to pull another reverse. Sorry, IT WON'T WORK. We've plainly shown you the man-made origins of the KJVO myth, and repeatedly asked its advocates for anything to give credence to that myth-and they've always avoided doing that, instead, answering with spin or attempting to change the subject-if they answer at all.

Now, can YOU provide any proof at all that any part of the KJVO myth is true, that the KJV is the ONLY valid English BV there is?

 

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You simply cannot prove the "stream" of texts which you say are wrong as actually being wrong. You simply SAY they are, because it fits your myth.
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What you incorrectly call "myth" is not "myth" at all but FAITH in the EVIDENCE that God has PROVIDED FOR US IN HIS WORDS. Approaching this first with FAITH IN THE VERY WORDS OF GOD (to which the churches have and have always had), and then understanding and seeing HOW through the centuries in the churches. You approach this issue with DOUBT IN GODS WORDS FIRST, and to which becomes the FOUNDATION for your INCORRECT and FAITHLESS BELIEF in this issue.

Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

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robycop quoted:

Michelle:You can find the scriptures in the King James Bible, called the "Holy Bible".

Spin, spin, spin. He asked for SPECIFIC Scripture pertaining to the topic.

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You are the one trying to make it SEEM as though I have not provided SPECIFIC scripture pertaining to this topic, but in REALITY I have, and many others have also. It is your own fault and you falsely accuse me because you and others are not paying close attention and do not believe nor understand the scriptures in the first place, nor the EVIDENCE thereof.

love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

So, did God tell the AV men that Psalm 12:7 was referring to people or to His word? Or, did the AV men suddenly lose their connection to God and use their imagination to make their marginal note?
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Michelle:The problem in this thinking/question is that you aproach God's words with doubt, and hold the opinions of men and interpretations of men, over and above that of Gods words and what God has promised, done, and evidenced he has done, in order to justify not having any final authority to claim.

You just don't like it when someone holds your feet to the fire, do you? You simply will NOT stick to the subject, hoping, in typical KJVO manner, to change the subject before your house of cards comes tumbling down.

You attribute the making of the KJV to God's influence, but, when those whom you said were influenced by God(the KJV translators) wrote something that disagrees with some part of your KJVO myth, you say they were just men, using their own minds.

You cannot attribute what they wrote to me or any other person of the present. The AV translators' marginal note about Ps. 12:7 appears in the first AV editions. In effect, you're telling us that the AV men were influenced by God-long as what they did conforms to your KJVO myth.


It is wishy washy, doubtful and faithless (in trusting God and his words) to suit and justify your "own" man made myth of understanding/belief to which is contrary to what God has said in the whole of the scriptures regarding his words and to what he has evidenced he has done.

But that's EXACTLY WHAT YOU'RE DOING! The plain, clear evidence is that God has provided His word in English in many versions. Was the KJV the first English-language Bible? Are there any two English Bibles exactly alike? Where is there any proof that God allowed all of them to be made, and then chose only one version & declared the others bogus?

I believe the evidence God has left over the centuries, and I believe the "forever" Scriptures, and not the KJVO belief that He retired in 1611. WE have clear, empirical evidence in the existence of these versions, while the only "evidence" the KJVO has is opinion, lip service, fables, fishing stories, and double standards.

 

Michelle:What the KJB translators thought, doesn't mean a thing to me.

So, they're the greatest, long as they seemed to have supported your myth, but wrong when they didn't. I see...

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Michelle:I do not put the translators in this light or on this pedastal, you are the one doing this, and claiming falsely that I do. I believe God chose to did this through them, as it is evidenced, not the other way around.

But you DO. You keep referring to the KJV as "what's God done already to provide His word in English". If that's the case, God had'em make their marginal note for Ps.12;7 stating the Hebrew reads, "him". Or, did God do only those parts of the KJV which fit your theory? Gotta be one or the other!

 

I for one would love for you to show us this evedence;what makes the origenistic Alexandrian "bibles" as equal to the Bibles from Reformation texts;the soap box is your's.

 

Michelle:You can find the scriptures in the King James Bible, called the "Holy Bible".

Spin, spin, spin. He asked for SPECIFIC Scripture pertaining to the topic.

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Michelle:You are the one trying to make it SEEM as though I have not provided SPECIFIC scripture pertaining to this topic, but in REALITY I have, and many others have also.

I've read every specific Scripture you provided in a recent post, and there's not one word of support for the KJVO myth found in any of'em, even when reading'em in the AV 1611. Your "scriptural evidence' is akin to saying, "Bill drives a green car; therefore Bill ia a vegan".


It is your own fault

For calling something false, FALSE?


and you falsely accuse me because you and others are not paying close attention and do not believea man-made myth.


nor understand the scriptures in the first place, nor the EVIDENCE thereof.

Right-we don't understand a lie to be truth.

 

robycop3:The plain, clear evidence is that God has provided His word in English in many versions.


Anti_Alexandrian:I for one would love for you to show us this evedence;the soap box is your's.

Easy!

The Wycliffe's, Tyndale's, Coverdale's, Matthews, "Great", Bishop's, Geneva,& Authorized versions(and other older versions) all exist, as well as those made later. Not ONE of them is lake any of the others.Can YOU prove any of those specific versions are NOT God's word?(Yes, I realize Wycliffe's was made from the LV.)

 

There is no confusion at all in the koine text especially when read in the context of the preceding verse.

Acts 12
3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)
4 And when he had apprehended him, he put [him] in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter (pascha) to bring him forth to the people.

Luke 22:1 Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passover (pascha).

HankD

 

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There is my authority, because that is where all the scriptures - the whole councel of God, can be found and read and understood for the English speaking people. Not one of the scriptures is missing. God's words are there in their entirety, 100%.

How do you KNOW this? How do you KNOW nothing's been added or omitted?
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Because I believe what God has said about His words and KNOW them as it is EVIDENCED by virtue of my reading them, that they ARE THE WORDS OF GOD and the EVIDENCE THAT THIS IS WHAT HE HAS PROVIDED TO US ALREADY and in the churches through history, as the church is the pillar of truth. How do I know that the mv's have altered the words of God? By virtue of them being new (not stemming from being used in the churches - not living actively in the churches) different texts with alterations that are EVIDENT by COMPARING what God has ALREADY provided, to those things claiming to be the same, that are in reality not. In other words, Gods ALREADY ESTABLISHED HIS WORDS in our language (by use in the believing churches of the past unto today) are to JUDGE those recently CLAIMING to be the same, when in REALITY and CLEARLY they are NOT. Judging all things by God's already established words - yes in our own language, as He has provided them for us in our language as he so chose to do and to which by them we also find our salvation in Jesus Christ and to which without them we would not, unless we knew Greek, Hebrew and Aramaic, to which most of us do not.

Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

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Michelle:No, this is not what I have said. What I have said, and continue to say, is that it was guided by the providence or care of God.

As He's done in many other versions.
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And the EVIDENCE that many have provided that you DENY, PROVE that HE HASN'T with the mv's. ( proof example of your denial with such faithless questions such as: " how do you know these things weren't added" (to the already established words of God in the churches)

Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

What evidence Michelle?

Proving that a version differs from the KJV is not proof that the KJV is right.

Not one of the KJVO "proofs" has stood scrutiny here. If you think I am wrong then please, by all means, cite that one proof and let's evaluate it.

 

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Do you deny this power of God? This is in no way saying the KJV translators had advanced knowledge or were prophets (I don't believe they were), they just were great scholars, knew the languages (which all things are given to us by God) and he used them to bring forth his pure words of truth for English speaking people and at that time.

Just as He'd done before that time, just as He's doing now.

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I never said that he didn't do this before that time AS It IS EVIDENCED, and have said quite the oppostite of what you claim I say, and you are the one denying this FACT. He is just NOT DOING IT NOW as is EVIDENCED from what HE HAS ALREADY DONE BEFORE that we even HAVE today TO THOSE OF TODAY claiming to be the SAME.

Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

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Psalm 12:7, KJV-"...thou shalt preserve them..."

Psalm 12:7, Geneva Bible-"...thou shalt preserve him..."

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It is EVIDENCED that God has PRESERVED this word as "THEM" in this verse in our language. But you lack FAITH in God's CONTROL/GUIDANCE over his words in our language, so you cannot SEE and therefore UNDERSTAND this, nor can you understand the CONTEXT of that passage of scripture, because if you did, you would understand this simple truth and not be arguing it.

Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

You simply cannot prove the "stream" of texts which you say are wrong as actually being wrong. You simply SAY they are, because it fits your myth.
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Michelle:What you incorrectly call "myth" is not "myth" at all but FAITH in the EVIDENCE that God has PROVIDED FOR US IN HIS WORDS.

Please provide that evidence, for once, instead of merely saying, "it exists". In that list of Scriptures you provided while ago, there's not one blip of support for the KJVO myth. Since you seem to see such support there, would you care to post just one of those scriptures and expound on why it supports KJVO?




Approaching this first with FAITH IN THE VERY WORDS OF GOD (to which the churches have and have always had), and then understanding and seeing HOW through the centuries in the churches.

Throughout the centuries, in English alone, the churches have used virtually every BV we've mentioned here, and some that we haven't mentioned.


You approach this issue with DOUBT IN GODS WORDS FIRST,

No; it's doubt in a man-made myth about God's word.

and to which becomes the FOUNDATION for your INCORRECT

That would be the KJVO myth.

and FAITHLESS BELIEF in this issue.

Typical KJVO rhetoric. But I AM faithless to this man-made myth called KJVO.

NOW...

You say you're NOT KJVO. what other specific versions would you recommend?

And while ago, you accused me of making a certain statement, & I asked you to either provide a post of mine where I made such a statement, or you will have proven yourself a liar. WHICH IS IT?

 

Michelle:You are the one trying to make it SEEM as though I have not provided SPECIFIC scripture pertaining to this topic, but in REALITY I have, and many others have also. It is your own fault and you falsely accuse me because you and others are not paying close attention and do not believe nor understand the scriptures in the first place, nor the EVIDENCE thereof.

I read every one of the Scriptures you provided while ago, and there's not the first word of support for the KJVO myth in any of them that i could see. If I'm missing something, I'm sure you won't mind enlightening me about what I'm missing in those scriptures. Please start with just one of them, or a few that go together to make a context.let's deal with specifics & not generalities.

 

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Difference is, YOU see His hand ONLY in the KJV while WE see His hand in EVERY valid English version.

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How is it you see His hand in every English version, when you can't even SEE his hand in what HE'S ALREADY DONE? If you did see His hand in every version, how then is it that you can say that you do not make God a liar? How then can you claim you can be your own JUDGE as to what is or isn't God's words when you determine on your own what is "valid"? You have no final authority to Judge what is valid one to the other, except by your "own" reasoning and judgement, which as a result is saying you are your final authority.

Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

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Actually, we've shown those "proofs" are incorrect, and consist of opinion and fishing stories.
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You have not proven one thing and have only denied the proof given to you. The EVIDENCE of the words of God and the truth in the words of God reveals it.

love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle