I hear various brethren on here saying that the reason that the KJV and not the Geneva was not the Bible is because King James and his translators got the upper hand. First of all I do not believe it and what you are implying is that the plan and purpose of God bowed to those of men. Did the God of all glory bow to King James? Then if it did King James a mortal man twarted the plan and purpose of God because the KJV was meant to be and not the Geneva. The Geneva had served it purpose and it was needed no longer and went the way of all other versions as they had also served theirs. So did the God of all glory bow to King James or was the purpose and plan of God carried out as always according to his will?... Brother Glen Of The Primitive Baptist Brethren