I'm going to concede that the reference in Psalms is not clearly an example of angelic intercession. So, I haven't had opportunity to read this thread in its entirety, so I want to give you what appears to me biblical reference to angels interceding on the part of mankind.
Then the angel of the Lord said, “O Lord of hosts, how long will you have no mercy on Jerusalem and the cities of Judah, against which you have been angry these seventy years?” (Zechariah 1:12).
So the angel of the Lord intercedes with God, asking him to have mercy on Judah after the seventy years of the Babylonian Exile. What are your thoughts?
Walter, Zechariah 1:12 is not an example of angelic intercession.
The figure speaking is the
Angel of the LORD, who in the Old Testament is consistently identified with Yahweh Himself, not a created angel.
If this is a pre‑incarnate appearance of Christ (as many conservative scholars hold, myself included - a Christophany), then Zechariah 1:12 is not an example of angelic intercession at all. It is simply an early expression of the same intercessory role Christ fulfills in Hebrews 7:25 and Romans 8:34. The Angel of the LORD consistently speaks and acts as Yahweh throughout the Old Testament, so His words here fit perfectly with Christ’s unique mediatorial office. Scripture never depicts created angels carrying human prayers or interceding on our behalf.
And even if one rejects that interpretation, the text still does not show an angel mediating human prayers. It is a prophetic dialogue within a vision, not intercession on behalf of mankind.
Scripture is clear that
only Christ is the mediator between God and man (1 Tim. 2:5). No passage ever depicts angels carrying human prayers or interceding for us.