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Final Authority before 1611?

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by Cix, Aug 19, 2004.

  1. Cix

    Cix New Member

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    Where was the "final authority" in 1610 and prior?
     
  2. natters

    natters New Member

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    And why was it corrected and replaced, even though it was "final"? [​IMG]
     
  3. GrannyGumbo

    GrannyGumbo <img src ="/Granny.gif">

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    In whatever the kjBible came from; just as I came from my kith and kin. Like begats like. I look just like my relatives from way back yonder & except for a few modern things, I think & act like them too.

    I'm sure glad everybody here loves that blessed ol'Book...ain't seen so many threads, as lately! :rolleyes:
     
  4. natters

    natters New Member

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    GrannyGumbo said "I look just like my relatives from way back yonder"

    Oh, I'm sure there are a few differences, even though they are "kin". Things that are different are not the same. ;)
     
  5. GrannyGumbo

    GrannyGumbo <img src ="/Granny.gif">

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    Yeah, but I got their bloodline, just as my kjBible has the bloodline of whatever it came from.
     
  6. natters

    natters New Member

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    Yeah, but that doesn't answer the original questions.
     
  7. gb93433

    gb93433 Active Member

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    The authority before 1611 is the same as after 1611. It is God's word--the scriptures. It is not a translation or an interpretation but the real deal the scripture.
     
  8. David J

    David J New Member

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    I've been asking KJVOist this question for some time now without any real answers.

    I'm still waiting on a KJVO to show me a bible before 1611 that lines up word for word 100% with the so called perfect and infallible KJV of 1769(or 1611 or 1762 or 1850).

    I guess that Christians prior to 1611 did not have a perfect bible. Maybe the early Christians authority was Jesus Christ, hum now that's a bold new idea for KJVOist to research!

    If KJVO assumptions about Psalm 12:6-7 are correct then there is a bible prior to 1611 that lines up 100% with the KJV. Maybe if you cannot product the evidence then you ought to reconsider your KJVO claims. Come on now, back up Psalm 12:6-7 and show me the preserved word before 1611 that lines up 100% with the KJV.

    Like always I'm sure that KJVO spin will dominate the thread yet again.
     
  9. natters

    natters New Member

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    GrannyGumbo, thinking about your family bloodline analogy a bit more, it makes me want to ask:

    - the your ancestors are your kin, just like the ancestors of the KJV are its kin, did your family bloodline stop with you or did the bloodline continue after you? How is anyone on the bloodline the "final" one if new (and different) "kin" are continually being generated?

    - when two or more "kin" are alive at the same time (when two Bibles that are "kin" are in use at the same time), how do we determine which is the "final authority"?

    - all human "kin" Noah as their ancestor. All Biblical "kin" have the originals as their ancestor. How can you be certain any branch is superior to any other, let alone perfect? Why arbitrarily pick any singular branch for no reason other than that's the one you're on? In human lineage, such approaches and beliefs are the root of racism.
     
  10. StefanM

    StefanM Well-Known Member

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    Superb analysis.
     
  11. Gerhard Ebersoehn

    Gerhard Ebersoehn Active Member

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    Am trying out how to use this forum. I like it!
     
  12. natters

    natters New Member

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    Welcome Gerhard! [​IMG]
     
  13. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    --------------------------------------------------
    - all human "kin" Noah as their ancestor. All Biblical "kin" have the originals as their ancestor. How can you be certain any branch is superior to any other, let alone perfect? Why arbitrarily pick any singular branch for no reason other than that's the one you're on? In human lineage, such approaches and beliefs are the root of racism.
    --------------------------------------------------


    You are going to far now natters, trying to yet again, paint a false picture of someone by your false implications. You are taking Granny's analagy to far, and way past and different direction than the simple, plain and clear point she was making - AND YOU KNOW IT. Please stop this character attack on others. It really is not nice.


    love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
  14. natters

    natters New Member

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    Michelle, it was not a character attack or taking the analogy too far, it was showing the analogy's faults and also showing how it doesn't answer the original questions. But thanks for your concern. [​IMG]
     
  15. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    --------------------------------------------------
    - when two or more "kin" are alive at the same time (when two Bibles that are "kin" are in use at the same time), how do we determine which is the "final authority"?
    --------------------------------------------------

    The two Bible's that you are implyingare kin (TR based, vs. W/H based)- are not kin at all. One is the pure stream, the other corrupt. Many are telling us we must accept the stranger as our true kin. Even though that stranger is dangerous and corrupt.


    To blatantly and honestly answer your question how do we know which one is our final authority?: It is by the Holy Spirit of God. John 16,17


    love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
  16. natters

    natters New Member

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    Michelle said "The two Bible's that you are implyingare kin (TR based, vs. W/H based)- are not kin at all."

    Actually, the Bibles I had in mind when I wrote that were "Tyndale's" and "Geneva". According to GrannyGumbo, they are "kin" of the KJV. I was asking, and would still like to know, how when they were all in use at the same time (and many still use the Geneva today, I use both myself), how to determine which is the final authority?

    Michelle said "To blatantly and honestly answer your question how do we know which one is our final authority?: It is by the Holy Spirit of God. John 16,17"

    I see. So why didn't the accept the Holy Spirit's prompting to accept the final authority in 1604 instead of starting work on a new one to correct and replace that which was supposedly "final"? John 16,17
     
  17. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    Michelle, it was not a character attack or taking the analogy too far, it was showing the analogy's faults and also showing how it doesn't answer the original questions. But thanks for your concern.
    --------------------------------------------------


    No one here has ever claimed to give a perfect anaglogy, nor would they, nor have I ever seen one. And I find it very ironic that many here expect man to be, do and say perfect things, but they do not expect this same perfection, nor believe this about God and his words, even though God and his word is perfect. Amazing. God can't provide for us his perfect word, there is no way, because of human fallacy in copying and translating. But man is expected to be perfect in all he does, and says.


    love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
  18. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    I see. So why didn't the accept the Holy Spirit's prompting to accept the final authority in 1604 instead of starting work on a new one to correct and replace that which was supposedly "final"? John 16,17
    --------------------------------------------------------------------------------


    Because maybe it was God's idea to improve in their language what they already had. You will have to ask God this. I do know, that what God provided for them at that time was their final authority and they would have known it. As for our final authority today, we know that it is the KJB.


    Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
  19. natters

    natters New Member

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    Michelle said "No one here has ever claimed to give a perfect anaglogy, nor would they, nor have I ever seen one."

    And the relevance to this thread is.....?

    I do not expect perfect analogies. But I don't think it's unreasonable to ask questions about an analogy, and show how an analogy doesn't work. John 16,17
     
  20. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    I do not expect perfect analogies. But I don't think it's unreasonable to ask questions about an analogy, and show how an analogy doesn't work. John 16,17
    --------------------------------------------------------------------------------


    That is fine until one starts to TWIST that analogy from it's origional meaning and try to paint a different picture than what was intended so as to try to destroy the character and intent of the one who origionally gave the analogy. This is the relevence and the unreasonable response on your part, to which I was adressing and responding to. You may not like her analogy, or you may see it in a different way, but you implied something nasty of her (ever so subtely) to destroy her character and her point. The flaw in the analogy only came in when you twisted the angalogy and attempted to slander her.


    love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
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