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How are we made righteous?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Van, Jan 27, 2018.

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  1. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    In a recently closed thread, it was claimed being made righteous by the blood of Christ is the same thing as being declared righteous or having righteousness "imputed" to us. This assertion is false theology.

    When God and God alone transfers us into Christ, when we are baptized into Christ, we undergo the circumcision of Christ where our sin burden (what God holds against us due to sin) is removed. Thus the Lamb of God takes away the sin of the world, one sinner at a time.

    It was also claimed we have not been made righteous, because we still think and do sinful things. This assertion is false theology. Although we certainly think and do sinful things, because we have been justified, once for all our sins, past, present and future, it is just as if we had not sinned, therefore we remain righteous.

    One poster posted a translation of Titus 3:7 which read in part, we have been "declared righteous" but the vast majority of translations render the Greek word "dikaiOthentes" as "justified. So a Greek word has within its range of meanings "declared righteous" but according modern translations (NASB, NKJV, NET, LEB and NIV) they all render it justified at Titus 3:7.

    Also candor requires that I admit I was wrong when I said no verse or passage says "declared righteous." Besides the YLT, I also found that the NLT also translates verses where the Greek word appears with words to the effect we were declared righteous.

    Summary, how are we made righteous, by the blood of the Lamb.
    When are we made righteous, when we are transferred into Christ.
     
  2. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    God and God alone credits the faith of believers as righteousness.
    Worthless sinners can receive and respond to the gospel.
    God transfers those whose faith He credits as righteousness into Christ.
    When God transfers individuals into Christ, they are made righteous, blameless, holy, and perfect, then indwelt forever.
    This is the Good News
     
  3. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    God declares it so.
    We reckon it so.

    HankD
     
  4. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Assertions without citations are like obfuscation without truth.

    Does God credit our faith as righteousness? See Romans 4
    Do worthless sinners understand and respond to the gospel? See Matthew 13.
    Does God transfer individuals into Christ's kingdom? See Colossians 1:13
    Are we made righteous in Christ? See Romans 5:19.
    Are we made perfect? See Hebrews 12:23
    Are we made blameless and holy? See Colossians 1:22
    Are we sealed with the Holy Spirit forever? See Ephesians 1:13 and John 14:16
     
    #4 Van, Jan 28, 2018
    Last edited: Jan 28, 2018
  5. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Romans 3
    24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:
    25 Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;
    26 To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.

    Romans 6
    11 Likewise reckon ye also yourselves to be dead indeed unto sin, but alive unto God through Jesus Christ our Lord.
    12 Let not sin therefore reign in your mortal body, that ye should obey it in the lusts thereof.
    13 Neither yield ye your members as instruments of unrighteousness unto sin: but yield yourselves unto God, as those that are alive from the dead, and your members as instruments of righteousness unto God.
     
  6. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Not to put too fine a point on it, but Romans 3 refers to Christ's declared righteousness, not ours.
    Not to put too fine a point on it, but Romans 6 refers us considering ourselves dead to sin and alive to God in Christ Jesus. Thus simply an acknowledgement of what scripture tells us occurs when we are transferred into Christ.

    Bottom line, I think the "it" in post #3 refers to our righteousness, and God does not simply declare it, He makes it so through the blood of Christ. Similarly, we are to consider ourselves made righteous, if we are indeed "in Christ" where we were made righteous. But we are also to consider our sinful thoughts and actions and strive to become more like our sinless Lord Jesus.
     
    #6 Van, Jan 28, 2018
    Last edited: Jan 28, 2018
  7. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Its contextual.

    We like Abraham are declared righteous when we believe God.
    Reckoning ourselves dead to sin we are alive to the righteousness of God.

    I know its complex.

    HankD
     
  8. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    You should know its wrong! Abraham was not declared righteous, his faith was.
    And acknowledging the truth of scripture has nothing to do with changing our status to righteous.

    Does God credit our faith as righteousness? See Romans 4
    Do worthless sinners understand and respond to the gospel? See Matthew 13.
    Does God transfer individuals into Christ's kingdom? See Colossians 1:13
    Are we made righteous in Christ? See Romans 5:19.
    Are we made perfect? See Hebrews 12:23
    Are we made blameless and holy? See Colossians 1:22
    Are we sealed with the Holy Spirit forever? See Ephesians 1:13 and John 14:16
     
  9. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    NAS Genesis 15:6 Then he believed in the LORD; and He reckoned it to him as righteousness.
     
  10. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    The "it" was his faith, thus Abraham's faith was reckoned to Abraham as righteousness. This did not declare Abraham righteous because like everyone else, he would be made righteous through the precious blood of Christ.

    Think about this Hank, if we were simply declared righteous, why did Jesus have to suffer and die on the cross? Why do we undergo the circumcision of Christ? How does the washing of regeneration fit in with your false theology.
     
  11. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    OK I'm done - ad hominem "your false theology".

    It's not worth it to me to bruise our relationship as brothers in Christ.
    I'm at fault for pushing the nit picking although the underlying Hebrew (לֹּו צְדָקָֽה׃ - lo tsedekah) grammar supports my view of the passage.

    HankD
     
  12. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    No it does not!! God credited Abraham's faith to Abraham as righteousness. Any other claim is false theology.
    Romans 4:5
    But to the one who does not work, but believes in Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is credited as righteousness,
    Romans 4:9 Is this blessing then on the circumcised, or on the uncircumcised also? For we say, Faith was credited to Abraham as righteousness.”
     
    #12 Van, Jan 29, 2018
    Last edited: Jan 29, 2018
  13. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    OK I see your point.

    HankD
     
  14. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    I only hope I would also have the strength of character you exhibit. Van
     
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  15. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    If I recall, the Hebrew is more of a term used in accounting more then legal, as if an accountant is balancing the books.

    There is no “It” in the Hebrew text, but more fundamentally the passage would read something like “believed the Lord righteousness.”

    All the added English “clarifies” the intent and direction, so, putting the “clarifity” back, the verse basically states “believing the Lord is righteousness.”

    To make some “it,” which was added by the English writers, the focus may attempt to present emphasis that would be weak at best.

    Therefore, the proper understanding is God marked the accounting ledger as “righteous” based upon belief.

    Which is consistent with what you posted.

    As always, I appeal to others when I delve into the original languages to correct any rendering that is inappropriate and not consistent with the Scripture.
     
    #15 agedman, Jan 29, 2018
    Last edited: Jan 29, 2018
  16. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Pay no attention to those who claim Paul did not rightly present the meaning of Genesis 15:6.
     
  17. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    This is true.

    “Pay no attention” to anyone who would discredit any Scripture.
     
  18. Darrell C

    Darrell C Well-Known Member
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    The issue to be considered is this: when Abraham was declared (it was credited to him, was it not?) righteous because of his faith, it is a temporal issue.

    When he will be declared righteous through the Offering of Christ, it is still imputed. This is an eternal issue.

    So to use this text and equate it to the focus of your point, which is basically men are "made" righteous rather than declared righteous, is like equating the sacrifices of the Law with that of Christ.


    In order:

    1. Because Abraham was justified, and declared righteous based on his temporal life, not eternally redeemed through the Blood of Christ.

    2. I view the circumcision of Christ to represent, again, a distinction made between the physical and the spiritual. The circumcision of the Old Testament was physical, the circumcision of the New Covenant spiritual. We are "circumcised" by Christ which relates to our relationship with Him and the New Covenant. The question is like asking "why are we born again?" It is a result of the Reconciliation which comes about for us, just as new birth is, and is effected by the eternal indwelling of God. I view new birth as literal, "spiritual circumcision" as a figure of speech which shows the changed heart effected by salvation in Christ.

    3. whoa, ease up there. lol


    Again, we must consider what is actually taking place for Abraham when he is said to be declared righteous, or in other words, righteousness which is not his own is credited to his behalf.

    Old Testament Saints were justified. That does not equate to being eternally redeemed, for as you say...

    But even when we are "made righteous," or in other words, our standing before God changes from condemned (and under the penalty of sin) to righteous, it is still a crediting to us of what Christ is and did.

    We are not "made righteous" from a practical standpoint. We still sin after being made righteous, and no matter how far our Progressive Sanctification goes, we will never truly warrant being ascribed as having the righteousness of Christ.


    God bless.
     
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  19. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    One of the aspects of being righteous is being "In Him."

    2 Corinthians 5:
    He made Him who knew no sin, sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.
    Philippians 3:
    ...9and may be found in Him, not having a righteousness of my own derived from the Law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness which comes from God on the basis of faith,...
    There is no amount of "our" faith (belief) in which one builds up that can be "credited" as being righteous.

    Rather, such righteousness comes from God on the basis of belief as being found "In Him"

    Because Abram believed (was found "In Him), then the account was credited, and that credit is signified as "righteousness."

    Abram did not attain righteousness of some human appeal or effort made of his own strength, rather upon the belief "In Him" in which God then applied as righteousness.

    From where then does such belief come?

    Paul breaks it all down in Romans 10:
    3For not knowing about God’s righteousness and seeking to establish their own, they did not subject themselves to the righteousness of God. 4For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes.​

    So, then why is belief evidenced in all folks? Belief is not delivered because of a lack of heeding God's Word. Subjecting to God's word is heeding, and obeying. Not attempting to be self-righteous, but understanding that the righteousness comes from God.

    Abram had belief, because he heard and heeded God's word. Just as Paul states in Romans 10:
    17So faith comes from hearing, and hearing by the word of Christ.
    And in another place it is written:
    22But prove yourselves doers of the word, and not merely hearers who delude themselves.23For if anyone is a hearer of the word and not a doer, he is like a man who looks at his natural face in a mirror; 24for once he has looked at himself and gone away, he has immediately forgotten what kind of person he was. 25But one who looks intently at the perfect law, the law of liberty, and abides by it, not having become a forgetful hearer but an effectual doer, this man will be blessed in what he does.​
     
  20. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    No verse or passage says Abraham was declared righteous, not one.
    Abraham's faith was credited to Abraham as righteousness. To claim that means Abraham was made righteous is lubricious.
    Why, you should ask, did Abraham have to wait in "Abraham's bosom" until after Christ died to be made perfect and enter heaven?
    No answer will be for;forthcoming. Pay no attention to the false theology being presented that actually conflicts with scripture.

    Next we see the waters muddied with use of the magic word "imputed." No definition will be forthcoming.

    1) Abraham was not declared righteous, his faith was.
    2) The circumcision of Christ is not a figure of speech, but the action to remove the sin burden (What God holds against us individually because of sin). And the washing of regeneration also is not a figure of speech, but the result of being spiritually born anew a new creation, created for good works.
    3) Abraham was not declared righteous, his faith was.
    4) Being made righteous by the circumcision of Christ and the washing of regeneration is not the same as being declared righteous. Words have meanings.
    5) Pay no attention to those who deny were are made righteous when God transfers us into Christ, Or scripture does not really mean what it says when it conflicts with man-made false theology.
     
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