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Featured How Did Jesus Do It?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by SavedByGrace, Jan 17, 2021.

  1. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    There have been a number of threads on here recently, on whether Jesus Christ, Who IS The Eternal God, could have sinned while He was on earth for about 33 years, but that He chose not to.

    It is argued by those who believe that Jesus “could have sinned”, that, for Him to be really “like us”, then He had to have this “ability”, otherwise His human nature was not “like ours”. It is further argued by these, that Jesus’ human nature, was exactly like that Adam and Eve had prior to their “fall”, which was “without sin”. Here is their first error. While I accept that Adam and Eve were Created by God as “sinless” beings, I do not accept that Jesus’ human nature was 100% like theirs. In one respect the human nature of Jesus Christ was like that of Adam and Eve, in that it was “sinless”. But, in Luke 1:35, we are told something that is not true of Adam and Eve, that the human nature of Jesus Christ, from conception, would be “Holy”, ἅγιος, that is “sacred and pure”, by the working of God the Holy Spirit. Hebrews 7:26 says this about Jesus

    “For such a high priest became us, Holy, Guileless, Undefiled, separated from sinners, and made higher than the heavens”

    Here the Greek word used for “Holy”, is “ὅσιος”, which denotes, “Righteous”. Then we have “Guileless”, which is “ἄκακος”, “free from any guilt”. Then, “Undefiled”, “free from any stain of ungodliness”. Or “free from contamination”. “Separated from sinners”, where “χωρίζω”, which is the perfect passive participle, “to separate oneself from”. This is true of the Lord Kesus Christ, from the time of His conception in Mary, and throughout His life on earth. The language used goes into much detail to ensure that the absolute sinlessness of Jesus Christ is understood. Jesus Christ is rightly called UNIQUE (μονογενής) in Scripture, which means that He cannot be compared to ANY human being, not even Adam, though he was Created as “sinless”.

    This brings us to a question, exactly how was Jesus “able not to sin? How did He, for the entire time that He was on earth, not even sin the one time, either in, thought, word or deed? It has been suggested, that Jesus was “able” to do this, because He “relied” on the Holy Spirit, or God the Father, Who gave Him the “ability” to reject any temptations, and remain 100% sinless for some 33 years. Let us suppose that this is true, that through His complete “reliance” on the Holy Spirit, Jesus was “able not to sin”. Why, then, is this not possible for ANY human being to achieve? If we are honest with ourselves, there is not one born-again Christian, who never struggles with temptation, many on a daily basis, many by temptations/sins that weigh you down, and have caused many to backslide. The Book of Job describes him as, “man was blameless and upright, and one who feared God and shunned evil.” (1:1). And, even though Job was “protected” by the Lord (Have You not made a hedge for him, 1:10), yet he had a problem with “lust”, as he says in 31:1, “"I made a covenant with my eyes not to look lustfully at a young woman”.

    The only answer for those who believe, that Jesus Christ, while on earth, “was able not to sin”, is that He could do so, because of the daily help that He received from the Holy Spirit. But, this could not have been in any way that is available for us humans, because there is not a single Christian, regardless of how “godly” they are, to remain “completely sinless” for their entire lives. This is impossible! Therefore, the “help” that Jesus Christ would have from the Holy Spirit, so that He could choose daily “not to sin”, had to be continuous, literally, 24x7x365, for every nanosecond of His time on earth! If this were true, then this is an very unfair “advantage” that Jesus Christ had against temptation, and therefore cannot be a true representative of any humans! Because, if Jesus Christ did not have this “protection” by the Holy Spirit, while on earth, then there is no way that He could have “rejected temptations”. Humanly, this is impossible!

    It is very clear that the teaching that Jesus Christ, while on earth, “was able not to sin”, is 100% wrong, and cannot be justified from any teaching in the Holy Bible. The ONLY correct teaching has to be, that while on earth, Jesus Christ was “not able to sin”, because He was always, The God-Man, both His Divine and Human “natures” are 100% “Holy and Perfect”, and therefore, could not have “fallen”, even though He was tempted as we are.
     
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  2. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    The man Jesus could not sin for one simple reason: That He was also God, Mark 10:18.
     
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  3. Dave G

    Dave G Well-Known Member

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    @SavedByGrace :

    As in the other threads that I left comments in about this subject,
    I think perhaps it's best that we as men stop trying to figure out "what makes things tick" on this, and simply rest in the truth of the Scriptures...
    That He, as God the Son who came down and was born of a woman, was tempted in all points as we and yet was without sin, is enough for me.
    How He did it is not near as important to me as the fact that He did it, and He did it for me and others like me.

    Efforts at ascertaining whether or not He had "two natures" ( when the Bible doesn't talk about it ), whether or not He could have sinned and didn't ( which Scripture again, does not touch on ), or whether He "loaded the deck" by being "unfairly imbued with power to resist sin over other men" border on, and in the last case outright fall over the cliff of, blasphemy in my firmly-held opinion.

    To me it is an insult to question how He did it, when the Scriptures don't directly give us that answer.
    He is God and that's enough for me.
    He is man, and that's enough for me to know that He experienced all that I experience, and yet was both willing and able to do what I could not do...

    Obey my Father perfectly.


    If you want to go that direction, then go ahead...:Cautious
     
    #3 Dave G, Jan 17, 2021
    Last edited: Jan 17, 2021
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  4. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    I disagree. Mark 10:18.
     
  5. Dave G

    Dave G Well-Known Member

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    That's why, when the question is posed to me, I end up agreeing with you.
    It's not that I think that the Scriptures do not "speak to it"...it's that they don't come out and say, "Christ was able to do this because He is God".

    But standing back and watching thread after thread get hammered out on this subject, looks to me to be unprofitable, my friend.;)
     
    #5 Dave G, Jan 17, 2021
    Last edited: Jan 17, 2021
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  6. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    This is a heretical view on the Person of Jesus Christ, known as "Monophysitism"!
     
  7. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    you are very much wrong on this as well!
     
  8. Dave G

    Dave G Well-Known Member

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    Never mind, SBG...
    It's your thread, and you can conduct it however you wish.


    May God bless you in many ways.
     
  9. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    you said, "Efforts at ascertaining whether or not He had "two natures" ( when the Bible doesn't talk about it )". And I said that this is heresy, and your response makes it unimportant?
     
  10. Dave G

    Dave G Well-Known Member

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    Respectfully,

    To me, it's as if you're looking for someone to argue with...
    which is why I'm making this my last reply in this thread and doing my best to encourage you not to keep revisiting this subject.

    Good afternoon to you, sir.
     
  11. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    "ος εν μορφη θεου υπαρχων ουχ αρπαγμον ηγησατο το ειναι ισα θεω αλλ εαυτον εκενωσεν μορφην δουλου λαβων εν ομοιωματι ανθρωπων γενομενος" (Philippians 2:6-7)

    "Who (Jesus), though He subsisted in the very Nature of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied himself, by taking the very Nature, of a servant, being born in the likeness of men"

    the TWO Natures in The One Person, Jesus Christ!
     
  12. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    then, why bother to comment in the first place? :rolleyes:
     
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  13. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    To "sin" is to think or do something that misses the mark of what God would have you do. Since Jesus did as His Father in Heaven would have Him do, He did not sin. Does that mean He did not even consider alternate thoughts or actions? Nope, He considered if He could pass the cup. But after prayer, He chose to drink the cup. To be tempted in ways humans are tempted requires that He considered options, but He always chose God's will for Him.

    To claim Jesus was not "really" tempted because God cannot sin, is to dishonor God's word. He did it, lived a sinless life, and we are to strive to do the same. For us to rationalize our short-comings with, oh well we are not God, is sin itself.
     
  14. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    your reasoning is that somehow God the Holy Spirit "prevented" Jesus Christ from giving into temptation, which He did for every moment, of every day. But, for this to equate to us humans, it means that there must be at least ONE godly Christian, who is like Jesus in their "ability not to sin". If not, then your reasoning is moot!
     
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  15. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Once again, words are put in my mouth. Did I say the Holy Spirit prevented? Nope of course not.
    Next we get the absurdity that because all fall short of the glory of God, we are not commanded to be "perfect" as our Father is perfect.

    To claim Jesus was not "really" tempted because God cannot sin, is to dishonor God's word. He did it, lived a sinless life, and we are to strive to do the same. For us to rationalize our short-comings with, oh well we are not God, is sin itself.
     
  16. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    I did not say that you said that the Holy Spirit "prevented" Jesus from sinning. I am saying, that the only way that He could have remained "sinless" for 33 years, and "was able not to sin", is that the Holy Spirit so "prevented" Jesus from giving into sin. Neither do I believe that the temptations of Jesus were "unreal". They most certainly were very real, which He would have "felt" daily. However, to be "tempted or tested" does not become "real" when the person gives in! I can "feel" the temptation to sin by commiting adultery, for example, but, this does not mean that I have to "do it" to show that it is real.
     
  17. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Me thinks you are making a distinction without a difference.
     
  18. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    you thinks wrong!
     
  19. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    I will give your provincial presupposition all the weight it deserves. :)
     
  20. MB

    MB Well-Known Member

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    I don't believe He could have sinned either. Mostly because He knew who He was and though He was a man He was still God. Only God could live with out sin. Those of us who wonder about His not sinning can't even come close to figuring out what His true holiness is really like. I'm thankful to have a sinless God. He overcame the world and sin.
    MB
     
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