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Featured Imputed Nonsense

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Van, Jun 17, 2024.

  1. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    imputed; imputing
    transitive verb

    1: to lay the responsibility or blame for (something) often falsely or unjustly
    The economic sins imputed to Tito had all been committed to a greater extent by the communist parties of neighbouring countries.—
    Hugh Seton-Watson

    2: to credit or ascribe (something) to a person or a cause : attribute
    our vices as well as our virtues have been imputed to bodily derangement—
    B. N. Cardozo​

    The second meaning, for someone to attribute or credit a person with something is the actual intended meaning when some archaic translations use the word "impute" to translate logizomai (G3049), which actually meams to take into account, and thus apply a consequence for a condition.

    The KJV translates the Greek logizomai about 7 times as impute or imputed or imputeth.

    In Romans 4:6 David says it is a blessing for God to attribute righteousness without works. Here the attribution is based on God crediting the individuals "faith" as righteousness.

    In Romans 4:8 scripture says another blessing is when God does not apply the consequence of sin to an individual, which of course can be applied to everyone washed with the blood of Jesus.

    In Romans 4:11, scripture says a person does not need to be physically circumcised in order to have righteousness ascribed to them based on God crediting their faith as righteousness.

    In Romans 4:22 Abraham's belief in the promises of God resulted in his faith being credited to him as righteousness.

    In Romans 4:23-24 righteousness was not credited for the sake of Abraham alone, but will be credited to all who believe upon God who raised Jesus from the grave. In verse 25 the idea is that Jesus was raised to facilitate our justification based on our faith.

    In James 2:23, scripture indicates again that Abraham's faith was attributed to him as righteousness.
     
  2. Marooncat79

    Marooncat79 Well-Known Member
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    I’m trying to understand - are you denying imputation?
     
  3. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Van, only IF you really understood Greek, and Bible Theology, then you will not call a CORE Doctrine of Imputation, "nonsense"!!!
     
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  4. David Lamb

    David Lamb Active Member

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    A perfectly holy God must punish sin. He either punishes the sinner, or He causes His Son to suffer the punishment on the sinner's behalf. The sinner's sin is imputed to Christ:

    “For He made Him who knew no sin [to be] sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.” (2Co 5:21 NKJV)

    A perfectly holy God demands perfect righteousness. No human being (apart from Jesus) has perfect righteousness. Christ's perfect righteousness is imputed to the saved sinner:

    “and be found in Him, not having my own righteousness, which [is] from the law, but that which [is] through faith in Christ, the righteousness which is from God by faith;” (Php 3:9 NKJV)

    You may not agree with imputation, but it's not nonsense.
     
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  5. JD731

    JD731 Well-Known Member

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    We have an extreme example of just how far off track a man can get who does not believe the words of the KJ Bible. He has no anchor for his soul.
     
  6. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    What are you on about?

    The KJV is NOT the only Bible that is blessed by the Lord :rolleyes:

    KJVO is a Myth!
     
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  7. JD731

    JD731 Well-Known Member

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    and you know this, how?
     
  8. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    Interesting topic, Van.

    May I ask a question that might direct thing’s differently?

    What did mankind inherit when Adam sinned?

    Did God impute Adam’s guilt upon all humans?
    Am I held responsible for Adam’s sin?
    Does God impute his guilt upon me?

    Or…was mankind through Adam now unable to be righteous before God, because now we all sin?

    Rob
     
  9. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Because ONLY the 66 ORIGINAL Books of the Holy Bible are Inspired by God the Holy Spirit. Period!

    ALL others are human translations that contain human errors!

    IF you suppose that the KJV is God's Inspired Word, then the SAME can be said by the Roman Catholics for their version, and the LXX, and the Jehovah Witnesses New Word Translation, etc, etc

    KJVO is a RANK HERESY!
     
  10. JD731

    JD731 Well-Known Member

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    You have an amazing amount of knowledge. I am impressed.
     
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  11. JD731

    JD731 Well-Known Member

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    Here is the deal. A man, you, are calling me, a man who believes every word of my bible, a rank heretic, while you admit you do not believe a single word in your Bible came from God. You need hospitilization and I am not sure you have not gone so far out into netherland that you can ever find your way back.
     
  12. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    ABSOLUTE AND UTTER RUBBISH!!!

    Now quote WHERE I say this? and then apologize here for SLANDER!
     
  13. JD731

    JD731 Well-Known Member

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    What do words mean? You said this in #9?

    If you know where the errors are then correct them. Then you will be like me and have a perfect Bible to believe.

    I can see logic is not your strong suit.
     
  14. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    You need VERY SERIOUS HELP :Rolleyes
     
  15. JD731

    JD731 Well-Known Member

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    If you do not know where the errors are then anything you read in your selection could be an error and who would know. Talk about someone who admits they cannot be sure of anything, you are it. Don't quote any Bible to me from here on because I am shallenging you on everything and since the originals are nowhere to be found, you can prove nothing.
     
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  16. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    I provided the biblical basis and scope of God attributing righteousness to those whose faith He credited as righteousness. That is not nonsense. To suggest I claimed all imputation is nonsense is disingenuous nonsense.

    We do not, repeat not, become the righteousness of God by imputation. That is nonsense. How do we become the righteousness of God according to the very verse you quoted? In Him we undergo the washing of regeneration. We are thus "made righteous" Romans 5:19. For you to deny this is nonsense.
     
  17. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    SBG, only if you really understand biblical doctrine, then you would call the extraneous doctrine of righteousness of God by imputation nonsense.
     
    #17 Van, Jun 18, 2024
    Last edited: Jun 18, 2024
  18. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Nope, I addressed the imputation of the faith of some as righteousness to those whose faith is credited by God as righteousness.

    Of course the bible does not say we have the righteousness of God by imputation, that is nonsense.
     
  19. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    The key to understand is God credits or attributes to individuals the righteousness of their faith to them. This does not make them righteous, perfect or acceptable to God as holy. Only, repeat only after the individual is washed with the blood of the Lamb, the washing of regeneration, the circumcision of Christ is an individual "MADE" righteous, thus now having the righteousness of God (perfect righteousness).
     
  20. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Romans 5:19 NASB
    For as through the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, so also through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous.
     
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