interpreting tounges

When I used to live in London, in the 1980's, I went to the largest Pentecostal Church at the time. I have no doubt that the greater majority of "tongues" that I heard, was FALSE! People spoke a load of gibberish just to "fit in" with the others. My landlady at the time, said that she "practiced" speaking in tongues every day for 15 minutes! complete rubbish!

The Bible Gift of Tongues is the ability to speak another human language, as was the case on the Day of Pentecost.

 

ABSOLUTELY, as this is what God says

 

Verse 39, ". . . forbid not to speak with tongues. . . ."
Verses 27-28, ". . . If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret. But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God. . . ."
Acts of the Apostles 2:4, ". . . speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance. . . ." [The words being God's words!]

 

LOL. You start a thread on tongues in a Baptist only forum on a Baptist board, then shut down Baptist responses.

The specific verses you cited are instructions to those leading the worship. Concerning interpretation, the only requirement is interpretation. The speaker may also be the interpreter.

1 Corinthians 14:12-13 Even so ye, forasmuch as ye are zealous of spiritual gifts, seek that ye may excel to the edifying of the church. Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret.

 

Have I seen such a thing, NO. Can the person speaking in tongues be the one to interpret what they just spoke, NO.

That would be a circular proof would it not?

 

where in the NT does it say that they cannot?

 

do you believe that the Bible Gift of Tongues, is a heavenly, or human language?

 

The Spirit begs to disagree. 1 Corinthians 14:13 Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret.

 

Notice it does not say he can but pray that he may. I agree sometimes things stare you in the face - and you just don't see it

 

If THREE speak and ONE interprets, nothing in that sentence prohibits the ONE to be one of the THREE … Does it?

The question in the OP appears to have been answered in the example from scripture.

 

While it does not say that. Nevertheless that was true. Otherwise it would not have been written, ". . . Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret. . . ."