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Featured Is the King James Bible the Word of God?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Guido, Sep 14, 2022.

  1. AVL1984

    AVL1984 <img src=../ubb/avl1984.jpg>

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    I believe the Word of God is preserved in many of the translations...in the Spirit of what was to be translated, not necessarily in the "word for word" of it that most who hold to such a theory believe. It's impossible to have a word for word translations, though they, through their poor exegesis of certain verses, would have one believe that it is indeed possible. Yes, every word of God is pure, and not one jot or tittle will pass away, but nowhere does it say that there will be a word-for-word translation of the same. They like to point to a verse about the word being purified 7x...and use numerology to say that this is the KJV...UGH! How stupid can people be? I know of NO translation that demeans the Gospel of Christ, the Sovereignty of God or elevates man above God.
     
  2. Guido

    Guido Active Member

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    Well, in an honest mind you would have to admit, that the NIV does diminish Christ's Godhood in the flesh, and not just in a single passage only.
     
    #22 Guido, Sep 18, 2022
    Last edited: Sep 18, 2022
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  3. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Better vocabulary? I doubt it. But the KJV is as much God's word as any other fairly-accurate translation.
     
  4. Salty

    Salty 20,000 Posts Club
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    Better vocabulary for the 1600's!
     
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  5. AVL1984

    AVL1984 <img src=../ubb/avl1984.jpg>

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    Please post the passages....I'd like to see them. I used to use the NIV and don't recall any such passages.
     
  6. Guido

    Guido Active Member

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    First, in Philippians 2, the NIV says that Christ " emptied himself and became nothing". Second, in another verse, the NIV fails to signify what the KJV says, that "God was manifest in the flesh".
     
    #26 Guido, Sep 19, 2022
    Last edited: Sep 19, 2022
  7. AVL1984

    AVL1984 <img src=../ubb/avl1984.jpg>

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    You are taking one verse out of the whole passage and trying to make it say exactly what the KJV says...read it in context in the NIV, the preceeding verses...UGH...it doesn't take away from Christ being God....I hate when KJV people try to misrepresent other versions like this...Dishonest to the core, and it really injures what the Spirit of God can do in people's lives.
     
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  8. Guido

    Guido Active Member

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    In one of the verses in that passage in Philippians, the KJV says the opposite of what the NIV says.
     
  9. AVL1984

    AVL1984 <img src=../ubb/avl1984.jpg>

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    They don't have the same underlying texts...so why compare apples and oranges. Dishonest on your part.
     
  10. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    HORSE FEATHERS !
    God created all languages, & He expresses Himself in whatever language(s) He has given to His audience(s) for the occasion. A prime example is Acts 2:1-12 when Peter, speaking in his own language, was heard by his audience in whatever language each one used.
     
  11. Guido

    Guido Active Member

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    So then, if they don't have the same underlying text, which one is the Word of God, and which one is not?
     
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  12. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    @AVL1984,
    Many of the so called modern translations are dishonest. And easily proven.
     
  13. atpollard

    atpollard Well-Known Member

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    Horse feathers? Good grief, how old are you? :p

    The post was just a bit of “Tomfoolery” … and I prefer “balderdash” or “stuff and nonsense”. I once had an entire sheet of approved alternatives. :)
     
    #33 atpollard, Sep 19, 2022
    Last edited: Sep 19, 2022
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  14. AVL1984

    AVL1984 <img src=../ubb/avl1984.jpg>

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    Who is to say they both aren't? I don't limit God...why do you? Remember, these aren't word-for-word underlying texts...there were, and have been, scribal errors, omissions, corrections, and additions. Still, they don't affect the underlying doctrines and purpose of God. The only ones that were perfect, which "onlies" like to deny, are the originals, which we no longer have. "Onlies" are the ones causing the confusion by trying to negate the Alexandrian underlying texts as "ungodly." Prove it. They can't. Nowhere do they negate God's holiness, love, death, burial, resurrection, and ascension of Christ. The doctrines aren't affected. You're always welcome to your opinion no matter how ludicrous and divisive it is.
     
  15. AVL1984

    AVL1984 <img src=../ubb/avl1984.jpg>

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    Bologna! If it's so easily proven...do so. In other words, put your money where your mouth is.
     
  16. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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  17. Salty

    Salty 20,000 Posts Club
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    Lets be more Christian like
    before we close the thread
     
  18. Bible Thumpin n Gun Totin

    Bible Thumpin n Gun Totin Well-Known Member
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    Well, I don't doubt it! Haha

    The quality and depth of the vocabulary is far beyond anything in our modern and simplistic version of English. I get more out of a verse from the KJV than I get our of an NIV verse.

    My wife loves to use the NIV, and whenever there's a question about an unclear NIV verse I pull up the KJV and it's crystal clear. My children study with the KJV for that specific reason.
     
  19. Salty

    Salty 20,000 Posts Club
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    In spite of hundreds of archaic words?
    Archaic and Outdated Words in The King James Bible (KJV)
     
  20. AVL1984

    AVL1984 <img src=../ubb/avl1984.jpg>

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