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Is the KJV a borrower?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Logos1560, Oct 26, 2012.

  1. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Active Member

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    “The borrower is servant to the lender” (Prov. 22:7).

    One way that a translation such as the KJV could properly be considered a servant is in how it borrows, derives, or acquires its own text and its authority from its master or source original language text or texts from which it is made or translated (Prov. 22:7).

    A translation is a borrower from its original language texts. As a borrower, a translation is servant to the lender or lenders [its original language texts] according to what is stated at Proverbs 22:17.

    The words of the master original language texts should determine which words should be properly in a translation.

    The words of a translation are under the authority of the original language words from which they are translated.

    Therefore, the original language words have greater authority than the derived translated words that borrow authority from their source.
    Therefore, the words of the translation can also be revised or corrected by the greater authority of the original language words.
     
  2. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    A similar idea is found in John 13:16 (KJV) --
    Verily, verily, I say unto you, The servant is not greater than his lord; neither he that is sent greater than he that sent him.
     
  3. Oldtimer

    Oldtimer New Member

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    Shouldn't the title of this thread be:

    Are English Bibles borrowers?

    Why single out one version? Doesn't this premise equally apply to the Geneva, for example?
     
  4. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Active Member

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    Yes, the premise equally applies to all translations. It would equally apply to the Geneva Bible.

    The title singles out one English translation because some try to make exclusive only claims for it that would assert that it is the final authority, that would make claims of perfection for it that in effect make it independent in authority from its underlying original language texts, or that would seem to apply different or divers measures or weights [double standards] to that one translation than to all other translations.
     
  5. Van

    Van Well-Known Member

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    So all this does is show from scripture that the KJV is not superior to the original text. But lets back up, is the TR a borrower from the Byzantine text type? And is it not a second hand borrower is places where a Latin text was back translated?

    How about claiming the number of copies increases credibility? Is that not like saying it is better to borrow a lot of times to puff yourself up?

    Perhaps the context refers to not enslaving yourself through greed and pride.
     
  6. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Active Member

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    Yes, other scriptures would affirm this truth that a translation is a servant.

    "The disciple is not above his master, nor the servant above his lord" (Matt. 10:24). In like manner, it can be inferred or deduced that a translation is not above the underlying texts from which it is translated. "The servant is not greater than his lord; neither he that is sent greater than he that sent him" (John 13:16). Likewise, a translation is not greater than the original language source or sources [the master text] from which it was made and translated and that gave it its proper derived authority. The lord or master gives authority to his servants (Mark 13:34). The servants do not give authority to the master nor do they have greater authority than the one who delegates authority to them. By its definition and in its role as a borrower, a translation can be properly considered servant to the master original language texts from which it was made and translated.
     
  7. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    Absolutely right on!

    Rob
     
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