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Is the KJV of God or man?

Discussion in '2003 Archive' started by swordsman, Nov 22, 2003.

  1. Ransom

    Ransom Active Member

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    BrianT said:

    Nothing I find in the surrounding pages goes into a discussion like that, but perhaps you are thinking of another passage.

    Quite possible (and if so, it wouldn't be the "I could have knelt there for hours" letter either, BTW - I'm quite familiar with that one, as you know).

    I used to have a hardcopy of a post I once made answering numerous of these "frequently assaulted quotations" and that particular argument figured prominently in one of them. Ten years later, unfortunately, I don't remember which one. It's in there somewhere.
     
  2. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    You did not answer my questions. :rolleyes:
     
  3. annarozsa

    annarozsa New Member

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    You can't prove that the KJV is the Word of God. But if you have faith in testimonies of those Christians who gave their lives for these manuscripts that came from Antioch, and not Egypt(where the modern versions came from), then, by faith there is enough evidence to conclude that the KJV is unique, which really leaves one speechless to realize it was done by the hand of the True God and not man. God says those who come to him must believe that He is, and He is a rewarder of those who diligently seek him. Sorry, it is paraphrased. I'm not sure where this verse is but I think it in is Hebrews. I can't find it. I'll have to ask my smart husband when he gets home.
     
  4. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    Hebrews 11:6 (nKJV):
    11:6
    But without faith it is impossible to please Him, for he who comes to God must believe that He is, and that He is a rewarder of those who diligently seek Him.


    [​IMG]
     
  5. Ransom

    Ransom Active Member

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    Askjo said:

    You did not answer my questions.

    Get your dictionary and look up the word "irrelevant."

    Your question concerning whether Mariolatry is Baptist or Catholic has nothing to do with whether Westcott and Hort were closet Catholics. Which false accusation has been proven conclusively to be a lie posted by you.
     
  6. robycop3

    robycop3 Active Member

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  7. annarozsa

    annarozsa New Member

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    Mr. Robocop,

    I'm not sure what the first half of your comment had to to with the second half, but to reply about the stupid people who give their lives for false gods(who is really Satan with a mask on), is really sad. All the more reason why we can't be changing God's Word around and expect the world not to be confused about the message and the authority we are proclaiming.

    Did you research how the KJV was put together?
    I used to think that all the translations were true translations, but they are not and that's the problem. You can't trust any other versions because they were manipulated by their own philosophy. So they would change the words and leave out verses that have to do with Jesus' blood paying for our sin, and about Jesus being God in the flesh. On the other hand, the KJV didn't do this; they just translated it, so any scholar can look at it and say yes, that is what was written. I used the NIV for 20 years but no one ever told me the difference between them. Now I feel like I'm not going to get the whole Word of God unless I read the KJV.
     
  8. Ransom

    Ransom Active Member

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    Trust your feelings, Luke . . .
     
  9. Archangel7

    Archangel7 New Member

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    Actually, they didn't "leave them out;" the evidence strongly suggests they were never there to begin with. BTW, all modern translations also tell us that Jesus' blood paid for our sins (Eph. 1:7) and that Jesus was God in the flesh (Jn. 1:1,14; 1 Jn. 4:2).

    Has nobody shown you what the KJV omitted? Compare the following verses in the KJV and the NIV to see what the KJV has left out: Jn. 14:14, Acts 4:25, Acts 16:7, Rom. 1:4, Rom. 8:34, 1 Jn. 3:1, and Jude 25.
     
  10. robycop3

    robycop3 Active Member

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  11. Elk

    Elk New Member

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    Regarding the KJV...
    The other day I decided to go on the internet and found a place that displayed quite a few verses from Scripture, comparing the KJV with the NIV. I wrote down a lot of the Scripture references. Then I went to my software and looked up these verses in the Greek (and a few in the Hebrew). My software can toggle between the Received Text and the Nestles.
    What I was surprised about, was that in most every case, every Scripture reference...was that in both the Received Text and the Nestles, the "omitted" in the NIV phrase or word or words, were omitted ALSO in the Received Text and the Nestles.

    I wanted to revisit the NIV and see for myself what all the fuss was about. But the only complaint I had after all that was that the NIV used the word "grave" instead of Hades, and the KJV used the word "Hell" instead of Hades. Hades probably being the optimal word, I believe.

    As over the years I have been thinking about all this, gathering bits of information along the way, I am thinking that when the KJV was translated there must have been other manuscripts available? For all the inserted words that are not in the Received Text, but in the KJV and not in the NIV, must have actually existed somewhere.

    I was wondering that perhaps in the days that they were written that some could have been revised? Like let us say, Mark. He could have written the Book of Mark, but later edited it. Hence, more manuscripts around. Or someone at a later date. Yet, when I looked at those verses that I spoke of (above), I find that the inserted words are acceptable, and in the NIV, they are fine without.

    It is just a curious thing.

    I'm so very grateful for the tools that God has given me.
     
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