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John 1:18

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Olivencia, Apr 12, 2009.

  1. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    No question that JESUS was GOD before He was born of Mary as a man.

    No question He was begotten in Mary by God The Father.

    No question He was wholly God and wholly man when he walked the earth.

    No question He was still God after His resurrection.

    Therefore "begotten God" is correct. Had He ceased being God at any time during these events, 'begotten God' would come under question. But Jesus has always been God, and was begotten, so it's quite correct to say 'begotten God'.
     
  2. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    ...sigh...

    It is hard to deal with people who fail to give evidence that they are quoting instead of passing things off as their own words or who do not reference their quotes so that they can be verified. Nonetheless...

    Let me make it real simple for you- the little 'g' means all the difference in the world to the JW's even though it may not matter to you (although it should!)

    In Spanish, the TNM (Traducción del Nuevo Mundo de las Santas Escrituras) says in John 1:1- 'En [el] principio la Palabra era, y la Palabra estaba con Dios, y la Palabra era un dios.' You see the difference- 'Dios' versus 'dios'?

    Now THAT's Gnosticism- I think. It IS damning doctrinal error.
     
    #102 Mexdeaf, Apr 24, 2009
    Last edited by a moderator: Apr 24, 2009
  3. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    I know the difference between "G" and "g."
     
  4. Eliyahu

    Eliyahu Active Member
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    Can you or anyone else defending " Only Begotten God" present the defense for it as I explained for " Onlly Begotten Son" ?

    I don't claim the Rule of Majority here, but want to let you or readers know and discern by comparing the apologetics for 2 different statements.

    I still want to restate the arguments for the " Only Begotten Son"


    1. Begotten is the word for the birth and it applies to the Father and Son relationship.

    2. Only Begotten Son is already proven in John 3:16, 3:18, 1 John 4:9
    Heb 1:5
    Thou art my Son, this day I have begotten Thee. (Isn't it applied to Son?)

    3. When is the word Bosom used? It is Kolpon in Greek but the Hebrew behind it is Heq, and this word was mostly used for Son and Father or Son and Mother. See here.
    http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/...gs=H2436&t=KJV

    4. Acts 13:33 also shows also the Father and Son relationship.
    Thou art my Son, this day I have begotten Thee.

    5. Only Begotten Son applies to Incarnation and Resurrection, do you see ?

    6. Have you ever seen any verse, which shows 2 God's in one verse?
    Apparently MV of 1:18 says 2 God's there. God the Father in the first half, then God the Son in the second half in the bosom of Father.
    So, it teaches 2 God's in one sentence, which is found nowhere in the Bible else than in the verse allegedly claimed by MV

    7. Who do you think is in the Bosom of Father?
    Is He Son? or God?

    8. We must note the absolute majority of the mss, which are discovered in the various locations, support " Only Begotten Son, while only a few ( maybe 6 max.) support "Only Begotten God". Hundreds of Mss support " Only Begotten Son" there!

    9. The mss supporting " Only Begotten God" are Roman Catholic Text, Alexandrian Texts which are often used by JW's, Aleph, p75, which showed many errors often. On the other hand, the Only Begotten Son is supported by most of the mss retained by the average or true believers from various locations.

    10. Do you think verse 14 " Only Begotten of Father" applies to Only Begotten God? verse 18 is the extension of verse 14. Read it closely.


    Can anyone who can defend the "Only Begotten God" write the summary of the defense for it in the same manner as above? Then the readers can discern and judge them !
     
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