KJV question

<BLOCKQUOTE>quote:</font><HR> I direct your attention to http://www.baptistboard.com/cgi-bin/ultimatebb.cgi?ubb=get_topic&f=4&t=000005&p=6 the very first post. It will clear up your confusion. <HR></BLOCKQUOTE>

(sigh)

Okay...I see your point. What I'm trying to say is that what you see as an issue of translator rights (translating "auto" in eg. Rom 8:16 and 8:26 as "Himself" instead of "itself" in reference to the Holy Spirit) is, from a different perspective, perhaps just as legitimate as its alternative. To stress this, I pointed out other places where Greek grammar does not reflect what is most necessary or desirable in English translation--the case of the particle "Ho" with names and the changing of present to past tense. In essence, I'm trying to bring more into the debate than pneumatology and general translation ethics.

The specific issue I brought up was that using the word "it" in English tends to create an implicit view of the referent as an object, and not a living thing--a sense that is not present in the original Greek at all. In this case, I feel that "itself" is a truer translation only without regard to the specific denotation and connotations of "it" in the receptor language, as opposed to its reflection of a grammatical point in the originator language. As I said before, in either case it's a pretty slippery bit of turf to handle. We shouldn't look at it lightly.

-Wayne